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Accounting and Finance Model Exam of 2024

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Fill in your Full Name and ID Number (Only the Number) and Write your Modality (Regular, Extention or Weekend)

1 / 100

1. Which one of the following is the primary importance of accounting information system?

2 / 100

2. Which of the following financial statement reports the resources that a business owns and controlled by an entity at a particular point in time:

3 / 100

3. Adjusting entries affect

4 / 100

4. On January 1, 2020, Lexy Company paid rent of $60,000 for the month January, February, March and April. The $60,000 was initially recorded as prepaid rent. The rent expense for the month of January should be:

5 / 100

5. If we failed to record adjustments for prepaid expense recorded as an asset initially except

6 / 100

6. Mr. Tomas deliver home rent service on monthly receipt basis and he has a plan to receive advance payment from its customers. One of the following is true on the accounts of Mr. Tomas

7 / 100

7. The form listing the titles and balances of the accounts in the ledger on a given date is;

8 / 100

8. The receipt of cash from customers in payment of their accounts would be recorded by:

9 / 100

9. An accounting assumption that states an entity will continue in operation long enough to carry out its existing objectives and commitments?

10 / 100

10. An accumulated amount that has been earned but not distributed to shareholders is known as:

11 / 100

11. Assume Company P began the accounting period with 100,000 in owner’s capital, ended with Br.700,000 in owner’s capital, and the owner withdrew 300,000 ETB during the period for personal use. What was the company’s net income or loss for the period?

12 / 100

12. Lucy Car Repair Shop started the year with total assets of 600,000 and total liabilities of 400,000. During the year the business recorded 1,000,000 in car repair revenues, 550,000 in expenses, and dividends of 100,000. The net income reported by Lucy’s Car Repair Shop for the year was

13 / 100

13. All of the following are true about internal control over cash except:

14 / 100

14. Which of the following type of assets are usually the management could reasonably be expected to convert into cash within one year?

15 / 100

15. Which of the following is not an activity listed in the statement of cash flows?

16 / 100

16. If a merchandise sold on account is returned because of defects, the seller may issue ____ to signify acceptance of merchandise returned from buyer.

17 / 100

17. Suppose Nile Company made credit sales of Br. 500,000 during 2022. Based on past experience Nile Company estimated that 10% of credit sales are uncollectible each year, the entry to record uncollectible accounts expense under direct write -off method

18 / 100

18. ____________are cash receipts recorded by the depositor, but not reached the bank to be included in the bank statement for the current month.

19 / 100

19. Suppose on January 1, 2021 Sally Company sold merchandise which worth Birr 150,000 on account terms 2/10, n/30, and FOB destination to Sony Company. On January 8, the buyer returned a portion of the goods worth Birr 5000 as they were found to be the wrong model. What will be the entry to record return of merchandise under perpetual inventory system?

20 / 100

20. Assume on December 1, 2022 Zemen Company purchase merchandise which worth Birr 500,000 on account terms 3/15, n/45, and FOB shipping point from Lulit Trading. On December 12, the company made full payment for Lulit Trading. What will be the entry to record settlement of liability under periodic system?

21 / 100

21. The cash in bank account for Tana Company at January 31, 2022 showed that balance of Br. 26, 431.60 after both cash receipt journal and check register for January had been posted. The bank statement indicated that a balance of Br. 39,027.8 on January 31. The bank had collected Br. 10,500 on an interest-bearing note left for collection, the face value of the note was Br.10, 000. In preparing bank reconciliation, the amount of notes collected would be:

22 / 100

22. Which one of the following is not element of a single set of high-quality international accounting standards?

23 / 100

23. One of the following is true about fair value measurement if there is a quoted price in an active market for an identical asset or liability

24 / 100

24. Under IFRS:

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25. All of the following are major part of IASB pronouncement except:

26 / 100

26. General-purpose financial statements are prepared primarily for:

27 / 100

27. Which of the following statements is false?

28 / 100

28. Which of the following statements is correct?

29 / 100

29. When is revenue generally recognized?

30 / 100

30. On January 1, 2019 Saba Company purchased copy machine with a cost of Br. 155, 000 and a salvage value of Br. 5, 000 with economic life of five years or 100,000 operating hours. Assuming fiscal period of Saba Company ends on December 31. The machine will be depreciated over useful life of 5 years using the sum-of-the-year’-digits method. If the asset placed in to service on January 1, 2019, the amount of depreciation Saba Company would record for the year ended 2019 would be:

31 / 100

31. Debt investments not held for collection are reported at

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32. Held-for-collection investments are reported at

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33. An unrealized holding gains or losses on a trading debt investment is the difference between the investment’s

34 / 100

34. If the investor owns 60% of the investee’s outstanding ordinary shares, the investor should generally account for this investment under the

35 / 100

35. A Company purchased bonds with a face amount of $400,000. It purchased the bonds at 102 and paid brokerage costs of $6,000. The amount to record as the cost of this investment is

36 / 100

36. Under the equity method of accounting for investments, an investor recognizes its share of the earnings in the period in which the

37 / 100

37. Debt investments that are accounted for and reported at amortized cost, are

38 / 100

38. ZB Corp. had finished goods inventory of $50,000 and $60,000 at April 1 and April 30, respectively, and cost of goods manufactured of $175,000 in April. Cost of goods sold in April was

39 / 100

39. Materiality is used in all of the following situations of providing financial information, except:

40 / 100

40. For the current period, Mesfin started 5,000 units and completed 3,000 units, leaving 2,000 units in process 70 percent complete. How many equivalent units of production did Mesfin have for the period?

41 / 100

41. Which one of the following is not considered for preparation of Job cost sheet?

42 / 100

42. When should process costing techniques be used in assigning costs to products?

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43. The predetermined overhead rate is $50 per machine hour, under applied overhead is $5,000. And the actual amount of machine hours is 2,000. What is the actual amount of total manufacturing overhead incurred during the period?

44 / 100

44. In job order costing, the basic document for accumulating the cost of each order is the:

45 / 100

45. Under a job order system of accounting, Cost of Goods Sold is debited and Finished Goods is credited for a:

46 / 100

46. When should process costing techniques be used in assigning costs to products?

47 / 100

47. If the level of activity increases,

48 / 100

48. An industry that would most likely use process costing procedures is:

49 / 100

49. Which of the following is a constraint in presenting financial information?

50 / 100

50. During a period 17, 500 labor hours were worked at a standard cost of Rs 6.50 per hour. The labor efficiency variance was Rs 7,800 favorable. How many standard hours were produced?

51 / 100

51. During September, 300 labor hours were worked for a total cost of $4800. The variable overhead expenditure variance was $600 (A). Overheads are assumed to be related to direct labor hours of active working. What was the standard cost per labor hour?

52 / 100

52. A company calculates the prices of jobs by adding overheads to the prime cost and adding 30% to total costs as a profit margin. Job number Y256 was sold for $1690 and incurred overheads of $ 694. What was the prime cost of the job?

53 / 100

53. Unit cost information is important for making all of the following marketing decisions except:

54 / 100

54. Which of the following is a non-discounting technique for appraising a project?

55 / 100

55. Davis Company manufacturer’s desks. The beginning balance of Raw Material Inventory was $4,500; raw material purchases of $29,600 were made during the month. At month end, $7,700 of raw material was on hand. Raw material used during the month was

56 / 100

56. The objective of financial management is to

57 / 100

57. Which one of the following statements is correct concerning the weighted average cost of capital (WACC)?

58 / 100

58. If risk free rate of return is 8%, Return on market portfolio is 12%, beta = 1.5, then the expected rate of return according to CAPM is equal to

59 / 100

59. If payable, receivables and inventories on average are $3,000,000, 3,500,000m and 4,000,000 respectively and sales are $15,000,000, Cash conversion cycle will be?

60 / 100

60. Which of the followings are factors favoring a low dividend policy

61 / 100

61. The major benefit of diversification is to____________.

62 / 100

62. Which of the following statements is correct regarding profit maximization as the primary goal of the firm?

63 / 100

63. Increasing the credit period from 30 to 60 days, in response to similar action taken by all of our competitors, would likely result in:

64 / 100

64. Permanent working capital ___________.

65 / 100

65. Auditor in general is:

66 / 100

66. In “auditing” financial accounting data, the primary concern is with:

67 / 100

67. Which of the following best describes the reason why independent auditors report on financial statements?

68 / 100

68. An audit conducted to determine whether an entity is following specific procedures or rules set down by some higher authority.

69 / 100

69. A review of any part of an organizations and methods for the purpose of evaluating efficiency and effectiveness is classified as a(n):

70 / 100

70. ________ refers to the application of relevant, training, knowledge and experience, within the context provided by auditing, accounting and ethical standards in making informed decisions about the course of action that are appropriate in the circumstances of the audit engagement.

71 / 100

71. Which of the following is a duty of the Auditor?

72 / 100

72. An auditor can be removed from their position as Auditor by:

73 / 100

73. Which of the following is considered lowballing?

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74. An auditor who accepts an audit engagement and does not possess the industry expertise of the business entity, should:

75 / 100

75. Which of the following is not a function of working papers?

76 / 100

76. The permanent audit file would usually include the following:

77 / 100

77. Before the work of audit is commenced, the auditor plans out the whole of audit work is known as:

78 / 100

78. Which of the following procedures is not performed as a part of planning an audit engagement?

79 / 100

79. During an audit engagement pertinent data are prepared and included in the audit working papers. The working papers primarily are considered to be:

80 / 100

80. Evidence obtained directly by the auditor is more competent than information obtained indirectly. Which of the following is not an example of the auditor’s direct knowledge?

81 / 100

81. Which of the following statements is correct with respect to ownership, possession, or access to working papers prepared by an audit firm in connection with an audit?

82 / 100

82. The current file of an auditor’s working papers most likely would include a copy of the

83 / 100

83. When the auditor attempts to understand the operation of the accounting system by tracing a few transactions through the accounting system, the auditor is said to be:

84 / 100

84. Which of the following is not one of the three primary objectives of effective internal control?

85 / 100

85. Which of the following is not an underlying principle related to risk assessment?

86 / 100

86. Inherent risk and control risk differ from detection risk in that inherent risk and control risk are:

87 / 100

87. The opinion paragraph of a CPA’s report states: “In our opinion, except for the effects of not capitalizing certain lease obligations, as discussed in the preceding paragraph, the financial statements present fairly,” in all material respects, . . . This paragraph expresses a(an):

88 / 100

88. The date of the CPA’s opinion on the financial statements of the client should be the date of the

89 / 100

89. The introductory paragraph of the standard audit report states that the auditor is:

90 / 100

90. Among the classification of public revenue, which one is characterized by their voluntary nature and by the absence of any expectation of direct benefit for the donor?

91 / 100

91. he necessities of raising the public revenue follows from the:

92 / 100

92. If the tax liability as a proportion of income falls with the increase in taxpayer’s income, it is termed as ______________.

93 / 100

93. Which one of the following is correct statement about Ethiopian taxation?

94 / 100

94. Which of the following is a tax to be shifted from one person to another person?

95 / 100

95. Mr. Denbel has bought ten shares of ABZ Share Company for Birr 200,000 each and sold them at Birr 300,000 each. How much does he pay as capital gains tax?

96 / 100

96. Given that the following were extracted from the books of a public sector entity for the year ended December 31, 2022: Capital grants $50,000,000; Revaluation reserve $600,000; Translation reserve $900,000; Accumulated Surplus $400,000 and public debt charges $1,000,000. What is the value of its Net asset?

97 / 100

97. Which of the following is a distinguishing characteristic of a nonbusiness organization?

98 / 100

98. Governmental funds use the:

99 / 100

99. In comparing internal service funds to enterprise funds, which of the following is (are) true?

100 / 100

100. Which of the following is true regarding accounting for fixed assets of state and local governmental units?

Your score is

453

Economics regular model exit 2016

Choose the Best from the Alternatives

Please fill the following

1 / 100

In a given market, consumers' surplus would, all else equal, be increased by:

2 / 100

In order to determine whether to use a fixed effects or random effects model, a researcher conducts a Hausman test. Which of the following statements is false?

3 / 100

Which of the following are advantages of the use of panel data over pure cross-sectional or pure time-series modeling?(i) The use of panel data can increase the number of degrees of freedom and therefore the power of tests(ii) The use of panel data allows the average value of the dependent variable to vary either cross-sectionally or over time or both(iii) The use of panel data enables the researcher allows the estimated relationship between the independent and dependent variables to vary either cross-sectionally or over time or both

4 / 100

According to the Marshall-Lerner condition, if a country's currency depreciates its trade balance will worsen if elasticity of demand for exports is ______ and elasticity of demand for imports is _______.

5 / 100

Assume that Kenya faces an 8% inflation rate while no inflation exists in Japan. According to the purchasing power parity theory, in the long-run Kenyan shilling will be expected to:

6 / 100

Which of the following statements is necessarily incorrect about AK endogenous growth model?

7 / 100

The steady state growth rates in the Solow growth model with technological progress indicates:

8 / 100

he short run supply curve of a competitive market firm is:

9 / 100

When a perfectly competitive firm makes a decision to shut down, it is most likely that

10 / 100

The main decision for a profit maximizing perfectly competitive firm is NOT what ________ but what ________.

11 / 100

In the long run the average cost fulfills the following, except:

12 / 100

Which one of the following is not true about Stage one production period?

13 / 100

Which one of the following is false?

14 / 100

If OLS is applied separately to each equation that is part of a simultaneous system, the resulting estimates will be

15 / 100

In the context of simultaneous equations modeling, which of the following statements is true concerning an endogenous variable?

16 / 100

Suppose that we estimate a logit model based on an intercept and two explanatory variables and the parameter estimates are respectively β ̂_1=0.1,β ̂_2=0.3 and β ̂_3=-0.2, the average values of the explanatory variables are X ̅_1=0.5,X ̅_1=0.8. A 1-unit increase in X_2 will cause an increase in the probability that the outcome corresponding to Y=1 to

17 / 100

Which of the following is correct concerning logit and probit models?

18 / 100

It is possible to convert the coefficients of logit estimation to their probit perspective by multiplying them √3/( π). According to Amemiya it is possible to convert LPM coefficients with same conversion factors to logit coefficient irrespective of which coefficient in the model.

19 / 100

If all the explanatory variables are qualitative information, and you run regression without including an intercept term, the estimated coefficients represent :

20 / 100

If a researcher has a qualitative information independent variable and introduce all the categories in to a regression model without creating a benchmark. Hence she will face a Problem of:

21 / 100

Given the foreign currency market for the Kenyan shilling, the supply of shillings slopes upward, because as the dollar price of the shillings rises:

22 / 100

The monetary approach to BoP adjustment has been subjected to criticisms on all of the following grounds, except the assumption of:

23 / 100

In the Mundell-Fleming model under fixed exchange rates, the automatic adjustment process produces BoP equilibrium as:

24 / 100

The main difference between the monetary approach and the portfolio balance approach is that:

25 / 100

According to the J-curve effect, when the exchange value of a country’s currency appreciates, the country’s trade balance:

26 / 100

The statistical discrepancy component of a balance of payment is used to:

27 / 100

If birr’s and dollar’s interest rate are 0.01 and 0.02 respectively, and the current exchange rate is 105.

28 / 100

Given that the spot rate of Yuan today is $2.00 while the 3 month forward rate is $2.02, how can a U.S. importer who has to pay ¥10,000 in 3 months hedge his foreign exchange risk?

29 / 100

A high level of tariff rate that aims is to stop all international trade is ____________.

30 / 100

The Solow growth model shows that:

31 / 100

Which of the following statements is necessarily correct?

32 / 100

In the Solow growth model, if the capital stock is below the Golden Rule level:

33 / 100

A time-inconsistency problem in macroeconomic policy can occur when the policymaker:

34 / 100

The American economist, Robert Lucas has argued that traditional methods of policy evaluation:

35 / 100

If we assume workers and all jobs are the same and each worker equally well-suited to each job, then:

36 / 100

When you deposit birr 100,000 in your local bank such as Commercial Bank of Ethiopia, even though you can withdraw that amount at any time:

37 / 100

According to the permanent income hypothesis, consumption is primarily determined by:

38 / 100

One of the following is not an opportunity of WTO membership

39 / 100

Temporary trade restrictions for new industries until they build competition capacity is refereed as ________________

40 / 100

  For Heckscher and Ohlin, the most important cause of the difference in relative commodity price and trade between nations is a difference in

41 / 100

From the following one is not Major features of mercantilists

42 / 100

Which one of the following is the most radical form of economic cooperation?

43 / 100

Which one of the following was not principle of GATT

44 / 100

A strategy in which trade and industrial incentives are biased in favor of production for domestic market over the export market.

45 / 100

To test the significance of the OLS parameter estimators we need, except

46 / 100

Suppose that we estimate the model given as : Y_i=α+βX_i+u_i from the data collected from a sample size of 10 and we got RSS=200 and ESS = 200. Then which of the following can be the value of coefficient of determination?

47 / 100

Which of the following is correctly defined:

48 / 100

Which of the following is not among formal methods of detecting Hetroscedaicity?

49 / 100

Which of the following is incorrect statement regarding to classical linear regression model assumptions?

50 / 100

Which of the following is not feature of time series data?

51 / 100

Which of the following models are linear in both parameters and variables?

52 / 100

Which of the following is different from the others?

53 / 100

In Imperfect-Information Model

54 / 100

Which of the following is incorrect regarding IS-LM model?

55 / 100

If the government of Ethiopia decreases the price of one dollar from Birr 55/$1 to Birr 50/$1 we say that

56 / 100

Which of the following statements is incorrect?

57 / 100

Which of the following is true regarding aggregate demand curve?

58 / 100

……………………..is a decrease in private investment as a result of a rise in government purchase/ investment.

59 / 100

……………….. is the purchase of new plant & equipment by firms to add to their stock of capital & to replace existing capital as it wears out.

60 / 100

Which of the following statements is correct?

61 / 100

Which one of the following schools of economic thought favor “Laissez-faire”?

62 / 100

Which of the following statement is false?

63 / 100

_____________ is the process by which sellers send messages to buyers conveying information about product quality.

64 / 100

Moral hazard is an information problem that arises when:

65 / 100

Which of the following is incorrect about technological Progress and income distribution?

66 / 100

Monopolistic exploitation is occurred

67 / 100

Suppose that the probability of players playing low price is 25% and playing high price is 75%. Then what is the mixed strategy Nash equilibrium of this game?

68 / 100

In Cournot model if there are 6 firms in the industry each will provide _______ of the market, and the industry output will be _________. The missed values in this statement are respectively

69 / 100

Which of the followings can be rationale for collusion?

70 / 100

Which of the following is not characteristic/assumption of monopolistic competition market?

71 / 100

People hold their wealth in different assets and money is one alternative of holding wealth. This statements best suit for which motive of money?

72 / 100

From the following which one is considered as the liability of central bank?

73 / 100

Which one of the following is a direct monetary instrument of central bank?

74 / 100

Which one is incorrect about open market operation from the following statements?

75 / 100

Which of the following factors that affect liquidity of an asset?

76 / 100

Which of the following are financial intermediaries that accept deposits from individuals and institutions and make loans.

77 / 100

If the person or corporation selling the bonds to the Central bank and cashes the Central bank's check at a local bank for currency, which would be incorrect alternative on the possible impact of this OMO on reserve, security and monetary base?

78 / 100

Among the player in money supply process which one is an individuals and institutions that save in banks mostly.

79 / 100

Suppose that the National Bank of Ethiopia purchases Birr 100 of bonds from a bank and pays for them with a Birr 100 check. From this information which one is correct?

80 / 100

integration of one the following function is equal to

81 / 100

1.      Derivative of one of the following is equivalent to its integral

82 / 100

Given the marginal saving as a function of income (x) as MS(x)=, then how much is the total saving between 2 and 4 income level

83 / 100

One of the following integrals is indefinite integral

84 / 100

Given polynomial cost of production function as ƒ(x) = 3×3 – 4×2 + 6x+200. Then at when 2 units of output are produced (i.e. at x=2),

85 / 100

If the profit (π) of a company is linear function of output (x) which is given as π(x)=3x+5 then, the value of marginal profit is_______

86 / 100

Identify incorrect statement about the difference between differentiation and integration

87 / 100

Economy can face trade deficit due to one of the following results

88 / 100

Which of the following is not true about agriculture's role in economic development

89 / 100

The Malthusian theory of population growth, as formulated by Malthus, proved

90 / 100

Compared to the developed countries, the LDCs have

91 / 100

Which of the following statement is false?

92 / 100

Which of the following case contributes for the higher population growth?

93 / 100

Which the following countries have higher fertility rates?

94 / 100

Which of the following is the make the Tobin’s q model different from neoclassical model?

95 / 100

Identify the incorrect statement according to the Solow growth model.

96 / 100

Which of the following describes an increase in technological knowledge?

97 / 100

The main domestic source of savings in LDCs is

98 / 100

According to the Harrod-Domar model, an increase in growth rates depends on one of the followings

99 / 100

According to W.W.Rostow, which of the following does not belong to the “precondition for takeoff”?

100 / 100

In a given market, consumers' surplus would, all else equal, be increased by:

Your score is

324

Economics 2016 Model Evening

Choose the best From the Alternative

1 / 100

Balanced growth theories of Ragnar Nurkse advocate

2 / 100

According to W.W.Rostow, which of the following does not belong to the “precondition for takeoff”?

3 / 100

According to the Harrod-Domar model, an increase in growth rates depends on one of the followings

4 / 100

The main domestic source of savings in LDCs is

5 / 100

Which of the following describes an increase in technological knowledge?

6 / 100

Identify the incorrect statement according to the Solow growth model.

7 / 100

Which of the following is the make the Tobin’s q model different from neoclassical model?

8 / 100

Which the following countries have higher fertility rates?

9 / 100

Which of the following case contributes for the higher population growth?

10 / 100

Which of the following statement is false?

11 / 100

Compared to the developed countries, the LDCs have

12 / 100

The Malthusian theory of population growth, as formulated by Malthus, proved

13 / 100

Which of the following is not true about agriculture's role in economic development

14 / 100

Economy can face trade deficit due to one of the following results

15 / 100

Identify incorrect statement about the difference between differentiation and integration

16 / 100

If the profit (π) of a company is linear function of output (x) which is given as π(x)=3x+5 then, the value of marginal profit is_______

17 / 100

Given polynomial cost of production function as ƒ(x) = 3×3 – 4×2 + 6x+200. Then at when 2 units of output are produced (i.e. at x=2),

18 / 100

One of the following integrals is indefinite integral

19 / 100

Given the marginal saving as a function of income (x) as MS(x)=, then how much is the total saving between 2 and 4 income level

20 / 100

1.      Derivative of one of the following is equivalent to its integral

21 / 100

integration of one the following function is equal to

22 / 100

Suppose that the National Bank of Ethiopia purchases Birr 100 of bonds from a bank and pays for them with a Birr 100 check. From this information which one is correct?

23 / 100

Among the player in money supply process which one is an individuals and institutions that save in banks mostly.

24 / 100

If the person or corporation selling the bonds to the Central bank and cashes the Central bank's check at a local bank for currency, which would be incorrect alternative on the possible impact of this OMO on reserve, security and monetary base?

25 / 100

Which of the following are financial intermediaries that accept deposits from individuals and institutions and make loans.

26 / 100

Which of the following factors that affect liquidity of an asset?

27 / 100

Which one is incorrect about open market operation from the following statements?

28 / 100

Which one of the following is a direct monetary instrument of central bank?

29 / 100

From the following which one is considered as the liability of central bank?

30 / 100

People hold their wealth in different assets and money is one alternative of holding wealth. This statements best suit for which motive of money?

31 / 100

Which of the following is not characteristic/assumption of monopolistic competition market?

32 / 100

Which of the followings can be rationale for collusion?

33 / 100

In Cournot model if there are 6 firms in the industry each will provide _______ of the market, and the industry output will be _________. The missed values in this statement are respectively

34 / 100

Suppose that the probability of players playing low price is 25% and playing high price is 75%. Then what is the mixed strategy Nash equilibrium of this game?

35 / 100

Monopolistic exploitation is occurred

36 / 100

Which of the following is incorrect about technological Progress and income distribution?

37 / 100

Moral hazard is an information problem that arises when:

38 / 100

_____________ is the process by which sellers send messages to buyers conveying information about product quality.

39 / 100

Which of the following statement is false?

40 / 100

Which one of the following schools of economic thought favor “Laissez-faire”?

41 / 100

Which of the following statements is correct?

42 / 100

……………….. is the purchase of new plant & equipment by firms to add to their stock of capital & to replace existing capital as it wears out.

43 / 100

……………………..is a decrease in private investment as a result of a rise in government purchase/ investment.

44 / 100

Which of the following is true regarding aggregate demand curve?

45 / 100

Which of the following statements is incorrect?

46 / 100

If the government of Ethiopia decreases the price of one dollar from Birr 55/$1 to Birr 50/$1 we say that

47 / 100

Which of the following is incorrect regarding IS-LM model?

48 / 100

In Imperfect-Information Model

49 / 100

Which of the following is not the basic characteristic of project?

50 / 100

The static method doesn’t include:

51 / 100

If the price of inputs and outputs of the project are proposed to be greatly affected by inflation over the entire life span of a given project we have to value costs and benefits of that project by:

52 / 100

The advantage of NPV include

53 / 100

Which of the following is different from the others?

54 / 100

The problems of valuing the benefits of social sector projects stem from

55 / 100

Non tradable goods can’t inter international trade because of

56 / 100

Suppose that Fitche town administration launched females training project which will be completed within three years. The town will present facilities, trainers and training modules. The trainers will properly lecture and guide 500 youth who will attend the training course. Suppose also that only 100 females will successfully graduate from the training project. From those who will graduate only 50 females achieved the required skill and will be employed in various sectors. As a result the annual income of Fitche town will be increased by 10 million Birr. Then the outcomes of this project will be respectively.

57 / 100

Which of the following models are linear in both parameters and variables?

58 / 100

Which of the following is not feature of time series data?

59 / 100

Which of the following is incorrect statement regarding to classical linear regression model assumptions?

60 / 100

Which of the following is not among formal methods of detecting Hetroscedaicity?

61 / 100

Which of the following is correctly defined:

62 / 100

Suppose that we estimate the model given as : Y_i=α+βX_i+u_i from the data collected from a sample size of 10 and we got RSS=200 and ESS = 200. Then which of the following can be the value of coefficient of determination?

63 / 100

To test the significance of the OLS parameter estimators we need, except

64 / 100

A strategy in which trade and industrial incentives are biased in favor of production for domestic market over the export market.

65 / 100

Which one of the following was not principle of GATT

66 / 100

Which one of the following is the most radical form of economic cooperation?

67 / 100

From the following one is not Major features of mercantilists

68 / 100

  For Heckscher and Ohlin, the most important cause of the difference in relative commodity price and trade between nations is a difference in

69 / 100

Temporary trade restrictions for new industries until they build competition capacity is refereed as ________________

70 / 100

One of the following is not an opportunity of WTO membership

71 / 100

According to the permanent income hypothesis, consumption is primarily determined by:

72 / 100

When you deposit birr 100,000 in your local bank such as Commercial Bank of Ethiopia, even though you can withdraw that amount at any time:

73 / 100

If we assume workers and all jobs are the same and each worker equally well-suited to each job, then:

74 / 100

The American economist, Robert Lucas has argued that traditional methods of policy evaluation:

75 / 100

A time-inconsistency problem in macroeconomic policy can occur when the policymaker:

76 / 100

In the Solow growth model, if the capital stock is below the Golden Rule level:

77 / 100

Which of the following statements is necessarily correct?

78 / 100

The Solow growth model shows that:

79 / 100

A high level of tariff rate that aims is to stop all international trade is ____________.

80 / 100

Given that the spot rate of Yuan today is $2.00 while the 3 month forward rate is $2.02, how can a U.S. importer who has to pay ¥10,000 in 3 months hedge his foreign exchange risk?

81 / 100

If birr’s and dollar’s interest rate are 0.01 and 0.02 respectively, and the current exchange rate is 105.

82 / 100

The statistical discrepancy component of a balance of payment is used to:

83 / 100

According to the J-curve effect, when the exchange value of a country’s currency appreciates, the country’s trade balance:

84 / 100

The main difference between the monetary approach and the portfolio balance approach is that:

85 / 100

In the Mundell-Fleming model under fixed exchange rates, the automatic adjustment process produces BoP equilibrium as:

86 / 100

The monetary approach to BoP adjustment has been subjected to criticisms on all of the following grounds, except the assumption of:

87 / 100

Given the foreign currency market for the Kenyan shilling, the supply of shillings slopes upward, because as the dollar price of the shillings rises:

88 / 100

If a researcher has a qualitative information independent variable and introduce all the categories in to a regression model without creating a benchmark. Hence she will face a Problem of:

89 / 100

If all the explanatory variables are qualitative information, and you run regression without including an intercept term, the estimated coefficients represent :

90 / 100

It is possible to convert the coefficients of logit estimation to their probit perspective by multiplying them √3/( π). According to Amemiya it is possible to convert LPM coefficients with same conversion factors to logit coefficient irrespective of which coefficient in the model.

91 / 100

Which of the following is correct concerning logit and probit models?

92 / 100

Suppose that we estimate a logit model based on an intercept and two explanatory variables and the parameter estimates are respectively β ̂_1=0.1,β ̂_2=0.3 and β ̂_3=-0.2, the average values of the explanatory variables are X ̅_1=0.5,X ̅_1=0.8. A 1-unit increase in X_2 will cause an increase in the probability that the outcome corresponding to Y=1 to

93 / 100

In the context of simultaneous equations modeling, which of the following statements is true concerning an endogenous variable?

94 / 100

If OLS is applied separately to each equation that is part of a simultaneous system, the resulting estimates will be

95 / 100

Which one of the following is false?

96 / 100

Which one of the following is not true about Stage one production period?

97 / 100

In the long run the average cost fulfills the following, except:

98 / 100

The main decision for a profit maximizing perfectly competitive firm is NOT what ________ but what ________.

99 / 100

When a perfectly competitive firm makes a decision to shut down, it is most likely that

100 / 100

he short run supply curve of a competitive market firm is:

Your score is

1158
Created by Dr. Lemma Belay

Management exit Exam Model 2016

Choose the Best From the Alternatives

1 / 100

What is management?

2 / 100

Which quote best describes the role of management in an organization?

3 / 100

Which of the following statements about management as an art is true?

4 / 100

Which level of management consists of the Board of Directors, the Chief Executive Officer, and the General Manager?

5 / 100

What is the primary function of management?

6 / 100

What is the function of staffing?

7 / 100

Which of the following is a factor affecting leading in management?

8 / 100

The process of comparing actual performance with standards and taking corrective action refers____

9 / 100

The process of allocating and arranging resources to carry out plans is called___.

10 / 100

What is the formal process of ensuring the availability of qualified workers at all levels in the organization?

11 / 100

Which of the following is NOT the functions of management?

12 / 100

How does management contribute to the welfare of society?

13 / 100

The highest level of management in the organizational hierarchy is known as:

14 / 100

Which of the following are the significances of management?

15 / 100

How many subordinates a manager can supervise, is determined by the principle of

16 / 100

Policy formulation is the function of:

17 / 100

The directing function of management embraces the activities of

18 / 100

This is a conventional distinction made between managers and leaders?

19 / 100

When managers dealing with problems, crisis, and changes beyond their immediate control refers to¬¬____.

20 / 100

Theory Y assumes which of the following?

21 / 100

Theory X assumes which of the following?

22 / 100

Which of the following is a characteristic of Participative leadership?

23 / 100

Transactional leadership has which of the following characteristics?

24 / 100

Transformational leadership has which of the following characteristics?

25 / 100

Which of the following is reward power?

26 / 100

Among the following, which one is not a leadership style?

27 / 100

Which of the following is an expert power?

28 / 100

Which of the following quality is not possessed by a leader?

29 / 100

In leadership trait theory, what is a trait?

30 / 100

Contingency theory is based on the assumption that the leader:

31 / 100

A long run dream of an organization refers

32 / 100

Which of the below is an example of laissez-faire leadership?

33 / 100

Leadership may be defined as ?

34 / 100

According to Kurt Lewin, which of the following is not a stage in the change process?

35 / 100

A company that decides to decentralize its sales procedures in managing what change category?

36 / 100

In organizations, people who act as catalysts and assume the responsibility for managing the change process are called ?

37 / 100

Managers’ options for change essentially fall into what three categories?

38 / 100

The unfreezing step of the change process can be thought of as .

39 / 100

All are the advantages of Internal recruitment, Except;

40 / 100

A recruitment method used by employer/s to attract a large number of applicants to one location for interviews is;

41 / 100

The process of receiving and welcoming employees when they first join a company is called .

42 / 100

A type of Interview in which a board of interviewers questions and observes a single candidate is Known as

43 / 100

All are the goals of recruitment process Except:

44 / 100

The first and foremost process of recruitment plan is/are .

45 / 100

———is the process of filtering the applications of the candidates for further selection process.

46 / 100

Which of the following is/are a training process whereby a skilled person trains someone who is unskilled?

47 / 100

Which of the following is a performance rating error in which employee’s evaluation is biased because of comparison with another employee just previously evaluated?

48 / 100

Which of the following is a training system in which trainees learn their jobs on the equipment they will be using on the job?

49 / 100

—————is fixed pay an employee receives on a regular basis, either in the form of a salary or as an hourly wage.

50 / 100

One of the following involves combining various activities at the same level in the organization and adding them to the existing job.

51 / 100

—————–Summarizes the personal qualities, traits, skills, and background required for getting the job done.

52 / 100

A process that identifies current and future human resources needs for an organization to achieve its goals is—

53 / 100

A pay plan in which most employees are part of the same compensation system is

54 / 100

What is the main purpose of research?

55 / 100

Which of the following sampling methods does not allow for estimating the probability of each item in the population being included in the sample?

56 / 100

According to the sample design, when a sample survey is preferable to a census survey?

57 / 100

What is the main difference between research and the scientific method?

58 / 100

Which research technique is not associated with qualitative research?

59 / 100

Which type of research aims to find solutions for immediate problems?

60 / 100

What are the most common reasons people undertake a research?

61 / 100

What type of research aims to achieve new insights into a phenomenon?

62 / 100

Which of the following statements best defines the term “research”?

63 / 100

The chi square independent test can be used

64 / 100

Suppose a farming firm used fertilizer to increase its crop products. Accordingly if the test for goodness of fit indicates a test statistics of x2= 9.231 and assuming that the critical value is 11.210 what is the decision of the manager?

65 / 100

————–is statistical Analysis which measures and analyses the degree or extent to which the two variables fluctuate with reference to each other.

66 / 100

If the coefficients of correlation between two variables, r = 0.89, it mean

67 / 100

Suppose the average mean salary of employees of an organization is expected as 4000 birr. Currently 36 sample employees are selected and mean of salary of birr 4200 with standard deviation of 100 birr is computed. If whether the mean salary is more than expected, what is the alternative hypothesis?

68 / 100

While we make decision in hypothesis testing if we strongly reject the null hypothesis which is actually true, we commit

69 / 100

___is a measurement that the distances between consecutive numbers have meaning and the data are always numerical.

70 / 100

Suppose a raw data is collected from 30 sample individuals. If the data is organized using grouped frequency distribution, how many class intervals are created?

71 / 100

What is the geometric mean of the values 10, 25, 5, and 30?

72 / 100

What is the median of the values 3, 6, 4, 7, 10 and 8?

73 / 100

The arithmetic mean of 20 sample values was computed as 30. But, while calculated the mean value of two items are misread as 24 and 12 instead of 42 and 21 respectively. What is the correct mean?

74 / 100

————-is the set of all possible outcomes of an experiment.

75 / 100

Consider a quality control procedure where an inspector randomly selects two of five parts to test for defects. In a group of five parts how many combinations of two parts can be selected without replacement?

76 / 100

Suppose two coins are tossed. What is the probability that both will land tail up?

77 / 100

Suppose 40% of the people entering electronics store this month make a purchase. If 10 people enter the store, what is the expected number making a purchase?

78 / 100

Suppose sample of 4 products are tested. What is the probability of getting 2 defective items?

79 / 100

————-is the value that is computed from sample results and to be compared with the critical value to conclude either to accept or reject the null hypothesis.

80 / 100

————–is a probability distribution of all the values of sample statistics.

81 / 100

In selecting simple random samples of size n from a population, the sampling distribution of the sample mean can be approximated by a normal probability distribution as the sample size becomes large. This assumption indicates

82 / 100

The economic aspects of MsEs covers

83 / 100

One is not the Role/Importance of MSEs in Developing Countries?

84 / 100

The first stage of product development process is:

85 / 100

All are Intellectual Property Protection except one

86 / 100

One is not the core Marketing concepts

87 / 100

Marketing provides utility including:

88 / 100

The major Functional Roles of Marketing Research is/are:

89 / 100

All are the Marketing Research Components except one

90 / 100

The first stage in Marketing Research Process is

91 / 100

One is not the Importance of Marketing Intelligence?

92 / 100

Forces affecting organizational behavior are

93 / 100

Scope of Organizational Behavior does not include

94 / 100

In present context, challenges for Organizational Behavior are

95 / 100

Organizational behavior focuses at 3 Levels

96 / 100

What model has been constructed from Operation Research problems for solving the models that are available in many cases?

97 / 100

Which technique is used in finding a solution for optimizing a given objective, such as profit maximization or cost reduction under certain constraints?

98 / 100

Operation Research can help to evaluate only the effects of ———————————–

99 / 100

Which of the following is a method for improving an initial solution in a transportation problem?

100 / 100

In a transportation problem, we must make the number of —– and —– equal.

Your score is

0%

367
Created by Seyar Yasin

Tourism and Hotel Management Model Exit Exam 2016

Choose the Best Answer

1 / 100

The followings are Benefit of accurate Sales Forecasts is, except

2 / 100

Which of the following doesn’t belong on the list of characteristics of hotel businesses?

3 / 100

Why is delivering excellent customer service important? Because:

4 / 100

What is the purpose of answering the telephone promptly with an appropriate greeting?

5 / 100

A type of tour operators who promote tours to foreign destinations is:

6 / 100

Of the following element, which one is determine the choice made by particular tourist to visit one particular destination rather than another?

7 / 100

The followings are Determinants of storage space and type, select the one related with shelf life of the items

8 / 100

Which of the following is an example of responsible tourism behavior by a tour guide?

9 / 100

Which one of the following is false about customer service?

10 / 100

What should a tour guide do if they encounter an emergency situation during a tour?

11 / 100

Which type of guest is more likely to choose a hotel solely based on personal recommendations?

12 / 100

The followings are statements to describe the term receiving, except;

13 / 100

Identify the wrong statement about the difference between goods and services in a given organization.

14 / 100

Which of the following is an important aspect of providing excellent customer service as a tour guide?

15 / 100

The tourism and hospitality industry should follow the following ways to create outstanding customer experience; except

16 / 100

What should a tour guide do if a tourist asks a question they don’t know the answer to?

17 / 100

Which of the following communication skills is essential for a tour guide?

18 / 100

Which one of the following is not basic component of tourism product?

19 / 100

What is the significance of cultural sensitivity for tour guides?

20 / 100

Targeting in marketing refers to:

21 / 100

Which type of guests is not typically given credit in hotels?

22 / 100

Which element of the tourism marketing mix involves designing and developing the tourism product or service?

23 / 100

Customer service is:

24 / 100

Which of the following is an example of sustainable tourism practice for tour guides?

25 / 100

Which of the following is NOT a responsibility of a tour guide?

26 / 100

What happens to guest account payments that are deferred to a credit card or an approved billing party?

27 / 100

Which one of the following is true about the importance of delivering quality services in the tourism and hospitality industry?

28 / 100

Which of the following is an example of ethical behavior for a tour guide?

29 / 100

Which of the following is not a file or register typically managed during the night shift?

30 / 100

Suppose XY Hotel in Addis Ababa has poor customer service to the target customers, these scenarios in this hotel result in:

31 / 100

What is the role of a tour guide in managing group dynamics?

32 / 100

Which is not the basic quality of service personnel in the tourism and hospitality industry?

33 / 100

The main reasons for the need for ground operators in the tourist destination are;

34 / 100

How to handle Customers’ Complaints?

35 / 100

What is the purpose of conducting a pre-tour inspection as a tour guide?

36 / 100

What is the purpose of creating an event budget?

37 / 100

Positioning in marketing refers to:

38 / 100

What is the significance of conducting pre-event site visits?

39 / 100

What should be done when a guest has a reservation for a lower category room?

40 / 100

How should a hotel handle walk-in guests regarding upselling?

41 / 100

What is the primary goal of event planning?

42 / 100

Which one of the following is correctly match with their type?

43 / 100

Which of the following best defines marketing in the context of tourism and hotel management?

44 / 100

To all those individuals, who have potential to undergo any tour, but they have delayed their plan due to some reasons;

45 / 100

What is the primary purpose of a tour itinerary?

46 / 100

A person who is very likely to buy the product or service offered by the business

47 / 100

Market segmentation is the process of:

48 / 100

What is the main responsibility of the housekeeping department regarding in-room guest supplies?

49 / 100

What is the purpose of creating an event proposal?

50 / 100

Why is it important to create a contingency plan for an event?

51 / 100

What types of travelers have their bookings usually made by companies with reduced room rates?

52 / 100

Typically, guest rooms with two single beds are referred to as ______?

53 / 100

Which one is not the basic essential element of customer/guest service standards?

54 / 100

What is the purpose of creating a budget for an event?

55 / 100

Which one of the following is not the component of tour cost?

56 / 100

What is the purpose of a post-event evaluation?

57 / 100

One is NOT the attribute of F&B personnel’s

58 / 100

In public areas, who is responsible for cleaning areas like lobbies, restrooms, and restaurants?

59 / 100

A form of tourism focuses on exploration the study of culture and traditions of indigenous populations;

60 / 100

One is incorrect about the advantage of French (Gueridon) service

61 / 100

What is the purpose of creating a detailed event timeline?

62 / 100

What are the common facilities and services provided to business travelers?

63 / 100

One is NOT true about the roles and responsibilities if F&B manager

64 / 100

A type of tourism activity which takes place in a defined and limited geographical space such as hills or massifs with distinctive characteristics and attributes that are inherent to a specific landscape, topography, climate, biodiversity (flora and fauna) and local community;

65 / 100

Which of the following is a promotional tool commonly used in event management?

66 / 100

When cleaning a guest room, what should be done with dirty linens?

67 / 100

Which one of the following are the most basic customer requirements in the tourism and hospitality industry?

68 / 100

What should front office staff do if they need to leave the phone during a conversation to retrieve information?

69 / 100

Excursionist means;

70 / 100

_______refers to a kind of hotel room pricing that is based on a normal price?

71 / 100

What is the primary goal of conducting a risk assessment for an event?

72 / 100

What careful considerations should be taken when designing package tours?

73 / 100

Which of the following is NOT a factor to consider when selecting an event venue?

74 / 100

One is NOT the characteristics of hospitality industry

75 / 100

What is the purpose of maintaining guest history records?

76 / 100

Which one of the following is not directly linked with Cultural Tourism Resource?

77 / 100

Which of the following is NOT a primary component of event management?

78 / 100

Which one is a key tourism asset?

79 / 100

What are the basic requirements for successful travel agency operations?

80 / 100

Which department relies on housekeeping for timely delivery of services to guests, especially during group arrivals?

81 / 100

Customer-focused strategies in tourism and hospitality industries ensure the following; except

82 / 100

How does the Security department benefit from collaboration with housekeeping?

83 / 100

Is the type of catering which is take uphold in Off-from the premises

84 / 100

Which service is NOT mentioned as another request from hotel guests?

85 / 100

The main functions of the front office department in a hotel include:

86 / 100

A tourist generating country is a ______ for tourism.

87 / 100

The following statements really tells us the main functions of travel agencies’, except;

88 / 100

What is the consequence of breakdown in communication between housekeeping and the Front Office department?

89 / 100

All are important customer handling techniques; except:

90 / 100

Which of the following is a technical consideration in event management?

91 / 100

Which of the following is an example of a marketing strategy for a tourist destination?

92 / 100

Which department collaborates with housekeeping to schedule maintenance during low occupancy periods?

93 / 100

From the following, one is does not belong to the category of cultural tourism resources?

94 / 100

Hotels located near to airports are called____________?

95 / 100

One is not the characteristics of good customer service

96 / 100

What is a logistical consideration in event management?

97 / 100

Which one is the most expensive type of tourism?

98 / 100

How are rooms prioritized for cleaning by room attendants?

99 / 100

Which of the following is NOT a common basis for market segmentation?

100 / 100

Who are the concerned persons while developing a menu

108
Created by Kinfemichael Nigussie

Marketing Management Model Exam 2016

Choose the best Answer from Given Alternatives

Fill the following

1 / 121

How does sales forecasting benefit sales management?

2 / 121

What is the role of personal selling in sales management?

3 / 121

What is the significance of supply chain management in channel management?

4 / 121

Which of the following is a function of marketing intermediaries?

5 / 121

What is the primary purpose of marketing channels?

6 / 121

What is the significance of search engine optimization (SEO) in E-Marketing?

7 / 121

Which of the following is a characteristic of E-Marketing?

8 / 121

What is the primary goal of relationship marketing in services marketing?

9 / 121

What distinguishes services marketing from product marketing?

10 / 121

Services and E-Marketing (Services Marketing and E-Marketing)

11 / 121

Which marketing strategy involves associating a brand with a well-known celebrity or event?

12 / 121

How does event sponsorship benefit a brand?

13 / 121

What is the role of product packaging in product and brand management?

14 / 121

Which promotional tool involves paid, non-personal communication aimed at promoting products or services?

15 / 121

What is the primary objective of integrated marketing communication (IMC)?

16 / 121

Which factor does NOT influence consumer behavior?

17 / 121

What is the role of pricing in the marketing mix?

18 / 121

Which stage of the product life cycle is characterized by rapid sales growth and high profits?

19 / 121

What is the purpose of a marketing plan?

20 / 121

Which of the following is NOT a stage in the consumer decision-making process?

21 / 121

What is the significance of a strategic alliance in international marketing?

22 / 121

Which international marketing strategy involves customizing products and marketing efforts to suit local preferences?

23 / 121

What is the primary challenge of conducting international market research?

24 / 121

Which factor is NOT considered in international market entry decisions?

25 / 121

What is the primary focus of strategic marketing management?

26 / 121

How does sales forecasting benefit sales management?

27 / 121

What is the role of personal selling in sales management?

28 / 121

What is the significance of supply chain management in channel management?

29 / 121

Which of the following is a function of marketing intermediaries?

30 / 121

What is the primary purpose of marketing channels?

31 / 121

Sales & Channel Management (Marketing Channel & Logistics Management and Sales Management)

32 / 121

Which social media platform is known for its visual content and engagement opportunities?

33 / 121

What is the significance of search engine optimization (SEO) in E-Marketing?

34 / 121

Which of the following is a characteristic of E-Marketing?

35 / 121

What is the primary goal of relationship marketing in services marketing?

36 / 121

What distinguishes services marketing from product marketing?

37 / 121

Which marketing strategy involves associating a brand with a well-known celebrity or event?

38 / 121

How does event sponsorship benefit a brand?

39 / 121

What is the role of product packaging in product and brand management?

40 / 121

Which promotional tool involves paid, non-personal communication aimed at promoting products or services?

41 / 121

What is the primary objective of integrated marketing communication (IMC)?

42 / 121

Which factor does NOT influence consumer behavior?

43 / 121

What is the role of pricing in the marketing mix?

44 / 121

Which stage of the product life cycle is characterized by rapid sales growth and high profits?

45 / 121

What is the purpose of SWOT analysis in marketing?

46 / 121

Which of the following best describes the concept of market segmentation?

47 / 121

What is the significance of a strategic alliance in international marketing?

48 / 121

Which international marketing strategy involves customizing products and marketing efforts to suit local preferences?

49 / 121

What is the primary challenge of conducting international market research?

50 / 121

Which factor is NOT considered in international market entry decisions?

51 / 121

What is the primary focus of strategic marketing management?

52 / 121

How does sales forecasting benefit sales management?

53 / 121

What is the role of personal selling in sales management?

54 / 121

What is the significance of supply chain management in channel management?

55 / 121

Which of the following is a function of marketing intermediaries?

56 / 121

What is the primary purpose of marketing channels?

57 / 121

Which social media platform is known for its visual content and engagement opportunities?

58 / 121

What is the significance of search engine optimization (SEO) in E-Marketing?

59 / 121

Which of the following is a characteristic of E-Marketing?

60 / 121

What is the primary goal of relationship marketing in services marketing?

61 / 121

What distinguishes services marketing from product marketing?

62 / 121

Which marketing strategy involves associating a brand with a well-known celebrity or event?

63 / 121

How does event sponsorship benefit a brand?

64 / 121

What is the role of product packaging in product and brand management?

65 / 121

Which promotional tool involves paid, non-personal communication aimed at promoting products or services?

66 / 121

What is the primary objective of integrated marketing communication (IMC)?

67 / 121

What is the primary focus of consumer behavior studies?

68 / 121

What is the significance of the product life cycle in marketing strategy?

69 / 121

Which of the following best describes the concept of market positioning?

70 / 121

What is the purpose of a marketing plan?

71 / 121

Which of the following is NOT a stage in the consumer decision-making process?

72 / 121

What is the significance of a strategic alliance in international marketing?

73 / 121

Which international marketing strategy involves offering the same product and marketing mix worldwide?

74 / 121

What is the primary challenge of conducting international market research?

75 / 121

Which factor does NOT influence global market entry decisions?

76 / 121

What is the role of competitive analysis in strategic marketing management?

77 / 121

What is the primary objective of sales territory management?

78 / 121

Which of the following is a direct sales channel?

79 / 121

What is the significance of inventory management in channel management?

80 / 121

Which channel intermediary takes ownership of products and resells them to consumers or businesses?

81 / 121

What is the primary function of a distribution channel?

82 / 121

What is the significance of conversion rate optimization (CRO) in E-Marketing?

83 / 121

Which online platform is commonly used for professional networking in E-Marketing?

84 / 121

What is the primary benefit of using email marketing in E-Marketing?

85 / 121

Which factor is NOT considered in the service marketing mix?

86 / 121

What is the significance of customer relationship management (CRM) in services marketing?

87 / 121

Which marketing strategy involves creating a perception of scarcity to drive consumer demand?

88 / 121

What is the purpose of event sponsorship in marketing?

89 / 121

What is the main objective of sales promotions?

90 / 121

Which promotional tool involves non-personal communication through mass media?

91 / 121

What is the purpose of a brand’s positioning strategy?

92 / 121

Which factor does NOT influence consumer behavior?

93 / 121

What is the role of pricing in the marketing mix?

94 / 121

Which stage of the product life cycle is characterized by rapid sales growth and high profits?

95 / 121

What is the purpose of SWOT analysis in marketing?

96 / 121

Which of the following best describes the concept of market segmentation?

97 / 121

What is the significance of market research in international marketing?

98 / 121

Which strategy involves customizing products and marketing efforts to suit local preferences?

99 / 121

What is the primary challenge of conducting business marketing?

100 / 121

Which of the following is a characteristic of International Marketing?

101 / 121

What is the primary focus of Strategic Marketing Management?

102 / 121

How does effective sales training benefit a company?

103 / 121

What is the purpose of a sales forecast in Sales Management?

104 / 121

What is the role of personal selling in Sales Management?

105 / 121

Which of the following is a function of a marketing channel intermediary?

106 / 121

What is the primary objective of Marketing Channel & Logistics Management?

107 / 121

What is the significance of customer reviews in E-Marketing?

108 / 121

Which E-Marketing strategy involves optimizing a website to rank higher in search engine results?

109 / 121

What is the primary advantage of using social media in E-Marketing?

110 / 121

Which of the following is a characteristic of E-Marketing?

111 / 121

What distinguishes services marketing from product marketing?

112 / 121

What is the key to successful brand positioning?

113 / 121

What is the purpose of Event Management in marketing?

114 / 121

Which promotional tool involves direct interaction with customers to generate immediate response?

115 / 121

What is the primary objective of Product & Brand Management?

116 / 121

Integrated Marketing Communication involves the coordination of which promotional elements?

117 / 121

What is the significance of market segmentation in marketing?

118 / 121

What is the role of consumer behavior in marketing?

119 / 121

Which theory explains how consumers make purchasing decisions based on maximizing utility?

120 / 121

What is the primary focus of Principles of Marketing?

121 / 121

Which of the following is NOT a component of the marketing mix?

Your score is

228

Civics and Ethical Studies Model Exit Exam 2024

CHOOSE THE BEST ANSWER

1 / 100

If a constitution of a given state entitles the people to elect their leader who should hold office for a defined period of time, it is __________.

2 / 100

Which one is not correct about Developmental states as development paradigms?

3 / 100

Regarding states as subjects of international law, which of the following claims is false?

4 / 100

While giving the punishments, the following points need to be taken care of, except?

5 / 100

Why did a field of ethics of development arise? Because_____________

6 / 100

All the following alternatives describes the rational model of public administration, except?

7 / 100

Which one of the following is incorrect about human rights?

8 / 100

Which of the following alternatives is not a pulling factor of major powers in the Horn and Middle East Regions?

9 / 100

Which of the following is false about the theories on the origin and development of the state?

10 / 100

Which of the following is not the function of WTO?

11 / 100

Which of the following factors negatively affect regional economic integration of Horn African States?

12 / 100

Which one of the following is incorrect concerning foreign policy? It is_____________

13 / 100

Among the following one is not the component of peace-building?

14 / 100

Which one of the following is not a fallacy of relevance?

15 / 100

One is not among the contributions of Alternative Dispute Resolution Program

16 / 100

The modern concepts of citizenship and peopleness are bound up in a package other concept except?

17 / 100

Which establishes the “tit-for-tat strategy,” or the premise that governments need to respond one another in kind, as an enforcement mechanism of international law?

18 / 100

Which one of the following is false about disadvantage of written Constitutions

19 / 100

Under which voting system is a candidate required to obtain at least one vote more than half of the votes cast in order to be elected.

20 / 100

There are numerous examples of world governments explicitly forming a new state and then requesting the recognition of another state. It is likewise true in the instance of Somaliland, which sought primary recognition from the governing body after being explicitly separated from Somalia. But Somalia starts to show reluctance to acknowledge the recently established state of Somaliland. And without receiving any recognition from its neighbors, Somaliland declares itself to be a newly independent state. Which theories of recognition were used by Somaliland?

21 / 100

Which one of the following is not a treaty-based international human rights monitoring procedure?

22 / 100

According to Ethiopian electoral law, who is not eligible to vote?

23 / 100

Which one of the following is the challenge of Indigenous Conflict Resolution?

24 / 100

Which of the following is correct about Interest theory and the Will theory of human rights?

25 / 100

Which one of the following conflict resolution strategies is essential for healthy conflict management?

26 / 100

Which of the following model advocated that, social classes, especially the opposing classes, through their struggle and following the process of revolution, move in the forward direction?

27 / 100

Identify correct statements concerning development ethics

28 / 100

From the following alternatives which one is/ are not barriers to critical thinking?

29 / 100

Gebre, I know you think that the Salale research institute should be located Gebra Guracha. Well, you are wrong. It should be located in fronts of Fiche town. How do I know? Gebre, I am your boss, right? And you are up for a promotion next month, right? You want the promotion, right? Well, then, the conclusion is clear. The Salale research institute should be located in Fiche town.
The fallacy committee on the above argument is_____________

30 / 100

Which of the following is wrong about international human rights instruments?

31 / 100

One is wrong concerning the Status of Ethiopia`s Foreign Policy in the Middle East during EPRDF.

32 / 100

Which one of the following does not describe about the aspects and salient characteristics of public Administration?

33 / 100

Assume that country “B” has been conducted national election once in five years. During election all legally able citizens were casted their vote for their representative at each constituent area. The candidate who received majority vote join the parliament. Then the chief of executive elected from the winning party in the parliament. Based on this assumption, identify the system of government country “B” follow.

34 / 100

Assume that the word “dog” might evoke a fuzzy, heart-warming emotion in someone who has had mostly friendly experiences with dogs. But another person, who may have been bitten or attacked by dogs, may feel fear and revulsion. This assumptions best explain which of the following theories of society?

35 / 100

All are disadvantages of unwritten constitutions, except?

36 / 100

Identify invalid statement about state obligation arise from human rights.

37 / 100

The neoclassical counterrevolutionaries argue that the third world is underdeveloped because of ____________

38 / 100

Regarding the nature and origin of international law, which of the following statements is true in accordance with positivist theory?

39 / 100

Among the following options, which one does not align with the European Union’s interests in the Middle East?

40 / 100

Which of the following covers up the distinctions between municipal and international law?

41 / 100

Which of the following is a global organization dedicated to protecting rights and building a better future for people forced to flee their homes because of conflict and persecution?

42 / 100

Of course, you need to buy a pair of Puma Shoe. Puma Shoeis really good and the entire Ethiopian famous runners like Fayisa Lelisa, Kenenisa Bekele Haile Gebrasilassie…ect can are wearing it in their international competition.
The fallacy committed on the above argument is ___________

43 / 100

Which one of the following is not contributing factors for genesis of citizenship?

44 / 100

Regarding to the powers and functions of the president of FDRE, which one of the following is invalid.

45 / 100

_________ is a system of government in which the government governs by fusing the legislative and executive branch of government.

46 / 100

An argument of environmental ethics that hold the basic idea that human beings as thinking animals are under moral duty to lead their lives in consistency with natural rules refers to_____

47 / 100

Which one of the following is correct about interrelation between state and market?

48 / 100

Which of the following is true about the political dynamism of Arab spring in 2010s?

49 / 100

Radical Democratic notion of citizenship characterized by all of the following except?

50 / 100

Which one of the following is wrong about House of Federation?

51 / 100

Which of the following best describe the distinction between the state and government?

52 / 100

Among the following diplomacy one is concerned with the process of convincing foreign audiences, trying to explain the ideas respective nation.

53 / 100

Which one of the following is incorrectly matched?

54 / 100

Identify the incorrect statement about philosophical foundation of human rights.

55 / 100

Let we say that country “A” has 100 million population with diversified language, religion and ethnicity. The country is also large geographically and there is the question of self-determination from local community. Which state structure do you think can fit this state?

56 / 100

Among the following alternatives which one is the best form of government for Machiavelli the republic?

57 / 100

Which of the following is not among the core values and interests of foreign policy objectives?

58 / 100

One is incorrect about the nature and type of conflict in Ethiopia.

59 / 100

Which model of decolonization is conceived as the purposeful fulfillment, rationally implemented by European administrators in cooperation with “moderate” indigenous politicians?

60 / 100

Which one of the following is not true about New International Economic Order?

61 / 100

Which one of the following is false about the notion of citizenship?

62 / 100

The principal justification for citizenship education derives from the nature of __________?

63 / 100

Which one of the following is wrong about primacy of economic realm perspective?

64 / 100

The process of assessing the implications for men and women of any planned action, including legislation, policies and programs, in all areas and levels is:

65 / 100

Which of the following state is odd in terms of accessing sea outlet in the Horn African region?

66 / 100

The basic justification behind Hobbesian and Machiavellian argument in support of strongest government is?

67 / 100

Which one of the following is the dominant subject of international law?

68 / 100

Among the following alternatives which one is not the major factor for the instability of the Horn African politics?

69 / 100

Among the following statement/s which one is/are correct concerning the significance of applied ethics?

70 / 100

Among the following political philosophers select the one who supported the continuation of state of nature.

71 / 100

Select the correct statement from the following alternatives

72 / 100

Among the following questions, which one do you think that requires answers from Axiology?

73 / 100

Mutual significance between politics and economics is actually critical. This view is the view of_________.

74 / 100

All are the main topics in contemporary IPE, except?

75 / 100

Among the following alternatives which one is common for all Hobbes, Locke and Rousseau’s political philosophy?

76 / 100

One is not the cause of organizational conflicts?

77 / 100

Which one of the following is the core principle and policy of social Democrats?

78 / 100

What is a criterion to evaluate the goodness or the badness of a given governmental political institution Rawls?

79 / 100

Based on 1995 FDRE Constitution, which one of the following is not the powers and functions of the federal government?

80 / 100

Of the following statements, which one is false in relation to the idea of international law?

81 / 100

Among the following statement/s which one is/are not correct concerning applied ethics?

82 / 100

Identify the negative impacts of trade, investment aid and loan on developing Countries.

83 / 100

Regarding the constitutive theory of state recognition, which of the following is true?

84 / 100

Of the following organs of IGAD’s, which one is in charge of preventing wars and conflicts through proactive measures?

85 / 100

Which one is correct about the Idealistic Perspective on policy implementation?

86 / 100

Which one of the following categories of public policy involves what government is going to do?

87 / 100

Which one of the following is a feature of a democratic election?

88 / 100

Using all their resources, USA can produce one unit of wine/1hr and one unit of cloth/2hrs, and China can produce one unit of wine /2hrs and one unit of cloth/5hrs. In this case which one is correct?

89 / 100

All are true about the council of ministers, except?

90 / 100

Which one of the following alternative illustrates the general features of public policy?

91 / 100

For Machiavelli the prince which one is true about thing make a prince to be praised?

92 / 100

All are true about development, except?

93 / 100

Which one of the following is true about consolidated democracy?

94 / 100

When we switch subject term with its predicate term in a given categorical proposition result will be__________

95 / 100

Which one of the following are not characteristics of liberal notion of citizenship?

96 / 100

Which one of the following is not a major challenge of career diplomacy?

97 / 100

One is not among the domestic determinants of foreign policy?

98 / 100

Which of the following is false regarding the state and government?

99 / 100

Which one is true about public policy frameworks in relation with public administration?

100 / 100

According to the cultural or subjective relativist, the fact that moral values vary from culture to culture or from individual to individual implies that no absolute or objective moral standards should be applied to all people in all times or cultures. The problem with this line of argument is that:

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Physics Model Exam

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Horticulture

VEGETABLE PRODUCTION AND MANAGEMENT

MULTIPLE CHOOSE

1 / 6

Which one is the correct order indicating the Economic importunacy of Coffee

2 / 6

The chemical found in Coffee which Stimulates the central nervous system is called

3 / 6

Which of the following is/are the important parameter for classifying vegetable based on hardiness?

4 / 6

Which of the following is/are Not the future of vegetable crops?

5 / 6

How to identify the deficiency of Phosphorus in tea plant?

6 / 6

Which one of the following is/are not the requirements of a good tea variety?

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Created on By Tadele Anagaw

Agricultural Economics Model Exit Exam 2024

Salale University
College of Agriculture and Natural Resource
Department of Agricultural Economics

Model for Exit Exam

Time allowed: 2:30 hr.

1 / 100

1) Assume that a project is expected to have initial investment and life of Br. 350,000 and five years respectively. The annual cash flow estimated at 12 % discount rate is Br. 125,000 for each of the five years and the discount factor from the present value of annuity of table is equal to 3.605. What are the NPV?

2 / 100

2) Which of the following is true about Environmental economics?

3 / 100

3) Which one of the following is incorrect about market classification?

4 / 100

4) Which of the following tests compares the residual sum of squares computed with and without the restrictions imposed?

5 / 100

5) _______is designed to estimate the linear relationships between variables when either left or right censoring in the dependent variable (the dependent variable is between 1 and 0).

6 / 100

6) Which of the following countries is not a low-income country?

7 / 100

7) If a firm has a number of proposals which all have a positive NPV and IRR that exceeds the cost of capital, but can’t undertake these entire projects because of limited availability of fund. So what the firm should perform in order to rank these projects?

8 / 100

8) Non-tradable goods are goods that do not enter into the international trade because of their;

9 / 100

9) ___________is below the income that secures the bare essentials of food, clothing, and shelter.

10 / 100

10) What is the Gross National Product:

11 / 100

11) To say a give natural resource is essential;

12 / 100

12) How can we measure the goodness of fit in binary regressand model?

13 / 100

13) _______ is the difference between the price paid by the consumer and price received by the farmer.

14 / 100

14) The standard error test of the parameter estimates measure:

15 / 100

15) Which one of the following is different from the other?

16 / 100

16) Imports are defined as the goods and services that we

17 / 100

17) ______ describes the direction and volume of goods flow from producers to consumers.

18 / 100

18) Assume a project whose NPV is 785 & -963 at discount rate of 6% and 7% respectively. What is the IRR?

19 / 100

19) The practical application of present value method includes one of the following except

20 / 100

20) An underdeveloped economy is characterized by

21 / 100

21) Which of the following is true about opportunity cost?

22 / 100

22) The infant industry arguments refers to a tariff designed to

23 / 100

23) Infant mortality means__________?

24 / 100

24) When Leontief tested the predictions of the Heckscher-Ohlin theory, he found that in 1947 the United States was exporting relatively labor-intensive goods and importing relatively capital-intensive goods. This was called the Leontief Paradox. This finding:

25 / 100

25) U Company has several investment opportunities to evaluate, but does not have the funds to invest in all of them. Which calculation would be best to determine which project(s) to choose?

26 / 100

26) Which of the following is false about economic analysis of project

27 / 100

27) Present values are better than the same values in the future. Thus, which method can be used to include the time dimension in a given project evaluation

28 / 100

28) Autarky refers to a country

29 / 100

29) As it relates to international trade, dumping

30 / 100

30) Based on the data given above, what is the company’s accounting rate of return?

31 / 100

31) Asian tigers countries of East and Southeast Asia include the following except

32 / 100

32) ____is the study of all activities, agencies, and policy involved in the procurement of farm inputs and the movement of agricultural product from the farms to the consumer.

33 / 100

33) How can we know the presence of heteroscedastic problem?

34 / 100

34) Balanced growth theories of advocates___________?

35 / 100

35) If there is high collinearity problem between variables;

36 / 100

36) If producers sell new and innovative, or improvised products or services at a high price for a short period of time and then the types of pricing strategy that the producer uses is _____________.

37 / 100

37) What is the principle behind time value of money?

38 / 100

38) ______ is the methodologies and tactics adopted by the companies to convey the messages in a unique and creative manner to their existing and prospective customers about their offerings of products and services.

39 / 100

39) Which of the following is correct about public goods in economic analysis project?

40 / 100

40) V Company is considering a project that would require an investment of 48,000 birr. No other cash outflows would be involved. The present value of the cash inflows would be 52,800 birr. The present value index of the project is:

41 / 100

41) _________ occurs when one observation’s error term (εi) is correlated with another observation’s error term (εj):

42 / 100

42) The main differences between economic and financial analysis of a project lies on

43 / 100

43) _________is a strategy used to set prices according to current prices in the market for the same or similar products or services.

44 / 100

44) Development economics focuses primarily on the poorest ___________ of the world’s a. population

45 / 100

45) ________ is a pricing strategy that utilizes competitor prices as a benchmark, rather than setting a price based on company costs or customer value.

46 / 100

46) Which of the following is the first stage in contingent valuation techniques?

47 / 100

47) Which of the following characteristics are most likely found in developing countries?

48 / 100

48) Which of the following is true about marginal extraction cost?

49 / 100

49) Country A limits other nation’s exports to Country A to 1,000 tons of coal annually. This is an example of ___?

50 / 100

50) A country has a balance of trade deficit if the value of its exports are ____ the value of its imports

51 / 100

51) Which of the following are not third-world regions?

52 / 100

52) Which one of the following is incorrect about marketing cost?

53 / 100

53) What is gross domestic product (GDP)?

54 / 100

54) What is hedonic price in environmental valuation?

55 / 100

55) Factor proportions theory is also known as the

56 / 100

56) When project gets acceptance in discounted investment criteria?

57 / 100

57) Assume the regression of log(wage)=0.25+0.75education, then which of the following is true?

58 / 100

58) If the error terms of an equation has heteroscedastic problem;

59 / 100

59) Economic development refers to

60 / 100

60) _________ is a strategy that focuses on customer preferences and requirements.

61 / 100

61) The Harrod-Domar growth model suggests that growth is

62 / 100

62) The zero conditional mean assumption shows that;

63 / 100

63) Suppose the project requires indigenous power equipment costing Br. 900,000 (estimated by project promoter). The power equipment produced indigenously is a tradable item whose FOB value is $100,000. The shadow price per dollar is Br. 9.5, though the official price is Br. 8.925. What is the cost of power equipment from private and economic point of view?

64 / 100

64) _______refers to the difference between the price at which a good is purchased from another company and the price at which it is sold to the consumer.

65 / 100

65) When the fitted linear regression is given by Yi= 8+0.82Xi, the value of 0.82 shows:

66 / 100

66) Economic growth measures the

67 / 100

67) The biological maximum of fish population is occurred at;

68 / 100

68) ____is the process of determining the needs and wants of consumers & being able to satisfy those needs & wants profitability

69 / 100

69) With international trade, a country

70 / 100

70) The impact of the project on international trade is reflected through

71 / 100

71) _________is the set of marketing tools the firm uses to pursue its marketing objectives in the target market.

72 / 100

72) The Physical Quality of Life Index (PQLI) combines three indicators. They are

73 / 100

73) Suppose you have given the costs and benefits of project in the form of cash. If you want to check the project worthiness and made investment decision through discounted measures of project worth, so what you should be done?

74 / 100

74) ___________is used to test the overall Significance of Regression Model

75 / 100

75) Which of the following could be considered critical questions in development economics?

76 / 100

76) According to Rostow’s economic stages, which of the following does not belong to the “precondition for take off”:

77 / 100

77) Assume that the project requires 10,000 unskilled labours for which the project control board (project promoter) has decided to pay a Br. 10 daily wage rate. The shadow price of unskilled labour is Br. 6 per day. What is the cost of unskilled labour from Private and economic point of view?

78 / 100

78) _______ are buy farm products from wholesalers and other actors and sell them to the consumers in small quantities.

79 / 100

79) Which of the following statements is not true about import restriction

80 / 100

80) The Human Development Index (HDI) summarizes a great deal of social performance in a single composite index, combining

81 / 100

81) If a nation imports a good that can be domestically produced, the market price of the good

82 / 100

82) Which of the following is different from the others?

83 / 100

83) Which of the following are /is the cause of heteroskedastic problem?

84 / 100

84) International trade and specialization are determined by

85 / 100

85) Which of the following factors are led to the growth in agricultural marketing?

86 / 100

86) If the a company produces a new product and offering for sell at low price initially to gain customers’ attention. This types of pricing strategy is called___________

87 / 100

87) Which one of the following is incorrect statement about pricing strategy

88 / 100

88) If rate of interest is greater than the increase in price per unit;

89 / 100

89) With perfect income equality the Gini coefficient in a country would be

90 / 100

90) H Company is studying a project that would have an eight-year life and would require a 300,000 investment in equipment which has no salvage value. The project would provide net income of 112,500 for the life of the project; What is the payback period for this project?

91 / 100

91) Market does not naturally lead to the optimal allocation of pollution emission. Because;

92 / 100

92) Which one of the following is incorrect?

93 / 100

93) Which of the following is not an element of the marketing mix?

94 / 100

94) Which of the following is example/s of fund pollutant?

95 / 100

95) The World Trade Organization

96 / 100

96) _________are incurred when commodities move from the farm to the final market.

97 / 100

97) Which of the following is false about revealed preference approach?

98 / 100

98) Income inequalities are often shown on a

99 / 100

99) _________ is the term that shows/measures the degree of market performance

100 / 100

100) When countries trade according to each country’s respective comparative advantage

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Created on

Economics second round model exit exam 2016

Choose the best answer

1 / 100

1) A macroeconomic policy is said to be conducted by rule if policymakers:

2 / 100

2) Which of the following statements is necessarily incorrect about AK endogenous growth model?

3 / 100

3) Which one of the investment theory shows the linkage between fluctuation in investment and stock markets

4 / 100

4) According to the Life-Cycle hypothesis

5 / 100

5) If the monetary base is $500 billion, the reserve deposit ratio is 0.1 and currency-deposit ratio is 0.6; what will be the money multiplier and the money supply respectively?

6 / 100

6) _____________is the purchase and sale of government securities by the central bank to maintain the proper level of money supply in the economy.

7 / 100

7) According to Keynes the Motive for people to hold money as a cushion against an unexpected need is called

8 / 100

8) Which of the following countries have greater balance of payment?

9 / 100

9) Which of the following represents trade pessimists?

10 / 100

10) Pick a region of the world among which the life expectancy is relatively highest

11 / 100

11) One of the following factors inversely affects the demand for education

12 / 100

12) Which of the following is not economic cost of corruption?

13 / 100

13) Which of the following is not causes of inequality?

14 / 100

14) Which of the following is false according to Lewis model regarding traditional sector?

15 / 100

15) The physical quality of life index (PQLI) is an aggregation of widely available indicators of basic human needs. Which of the following is not a component of the PQLI?

16 / 100

16) Non-traded goods do not enter measured GDP because

17 / 100

17) A ________ occurs if all players in a game play their best strategies regardless of what their competitors do.

18 / 100

18) The general equilibrium of production occurs at a point where the _________ is the same for all the firms, that is, at a point which satisfies the Pareto Optimality criterion of efficiency in factor substitution.

19 / 100

19) A profit-maximizing firm hires labor up to the point where

20 / 100

20) Oligopolistic industries are characterized by:

21 / 100

21) When comparing monopolistic competition and perfect competition markets, which of the following is true?

22 / 100

22) The following is incorrect about the relationship between MC, AVC and ATC curves

23 / 100

23) Implicit costs are costs :

24 / 100

24) A form of oligopoly in which a dominant firm sets the price and all smaller firms in the industry follow the dominant firm’s pricing policy is called

25 / 100

25) According to the balanced growth theory, underdevelopment would be solved by

26 / 100

26) Which one of the following is not correct

27 / 100

27) The type of monopoly that was created due to efficiency in producing certain product

28 / 100

28) Which of the following is not the possible sources of monopoly?

29 / 100

29) Under perfectly competitive market in long run, equilibrium condition for firms will be:

30 / 100

30) In TR-TC approach, firms in perfectly competitive market get positive profit at the point where;

31 / 100

31) Identify correct statement about the assumption of perfectly competitive market structure

32 / 100

32) Given the supply and demand functions for two related goods, tea and coffee,
Q_d^t=30-8P_t+2P_c , Q_S^t=-15+2P_t
〖 Q〗_d^c=28+4P_t-6P_C , Q_S^C=12+2P_C
Where〖 Q〗_d^t,〖 Q〗_d^c, Q_S^t, Q_(S,)^C P_t and P_c represented quantity demand for tea and coffee, supply of tea and coffee, price of tea and coffee respectively. What is the equilibrium price of tea

33 / 100

33) Given the supply and demand functions for two related goods, tea and coffee,

34 / 100

34) Which one of the following represent the solution of difference equation x_(t+1)=1⁄2 x_t+3

35 / 100

35) Which one of the following is the general solution of differential equation (x ) ̇+2x=8

36 / 100

36) Given demand function p=30-4Q , what is consumer surplus at Q=5

37 / 100

37) The derivative of multivariate function y=x_1^2 x_2 , where x_1=t^2 and x_2=3t-1 is

38 / 100

38) Suppose that m=100-200t+250t^2, where m is import and t is tariff. Using differential approximation what is the change in import if the initial tariff rate is 0.2 and it is scheduled to rise to 0.25?

39 / 100

39) Given production and constraint functions Q=L^.25 K^0.75 and 2X_1+4X_2=100 respectively , what is the amount of labor and capital which maximize the above production function?

40 / 100

40) Consider production function Q=300√L -4L . where Q denotes output and L denotes the size of work force , what is the value of 〖MP〗_L when L=9?

41 / 100

41) According to _______________ the SRAS & LRAS curves differ because of temporary misperceptions about prices.

42 / 100

42) A curve which plots the relationship between equilibrium interest rate and income in money market is

43 / 100

43) Which one is the link variable between goods market and money market in IS- LM model?

44 / 100

44) Which of the followings shows surplus trade?

45 / 100

45) Which of the following statements is incorrect?

46 / 100

46) Which of the following is true regarding aggregate demand curve?

47 / 100

47) Which of the following statements is incorrect?

48 / 100

48) Reasons for using Panel Data doesn’t include

49 / 100

49) For an equation to be identified

50 / 100

50) Which of the following is incorrect about simultaneous equation model?

51 / 100

51) If the trend in a time series is completely predictable and not variable, we call it

52 / 100

52) which of the followings is not among problems of linear probability model:

53 / 100

53) Which of the following is correct?

54 / 100

54) Which of the following statements is incorrect?

55 / 100

55) Which of the following statements is correct?

56 / 100

56) ________________ analysis is concerned with describing and explaining the relationship between an explained variable and one or more of the explanatory variables.

57 / 100

57) Which one is equal to explained variation divided by total variation?

58 / 100

58) Consider the equation, y = α+β1×1 + β2X2 + u. null hypothesis, H0: β2 = 0 states that:

59 / 100

59) Which of the following is among rules of thumb to address the problem of multicollinearity?

60 / 100

60) Which of the followings might not reasons why variances of may be variable?

61 / 100

61) Which of the following statements is incorrect?

62 / 100

62) Which of the following is incorrect statement regarding classical linear regression model assumptions?

63 / 100

63) Which of the following statements is correct?

64 / 100

64) All of the following statements are considered correct under absorption approach, except:

65 / 100

65) _____an economic term for the negative consequences that can arise from the spike in the value of a nation’s currency

66 / 100

66) Which one of the following is not an obstacle for international macroeconomic coordination:

67 / 100

67) From the following one is not categorized under expenditure switching policy:

68 / 100

68) Which of the following is a disadvantage of a fixed exchange rate system?

69 / 100

69) The Marshall-Lerner condition states that a currency depreciation will improve a country’s trade balance if:

70 / 100

70) The J-curve effect refers to the idea that:

71 / 100

71) From the following one does not describe the function of commercial banks in FORX market:

72 / 100

72) From the following which one is the ultimate goal of monetary policy.

73 / 100

73) From the following statement which one is wrong?

74 / 100

74) Which of the following is not an asset of central bank?

75 / 100

75) Which of the following is incorrect regarding Keynesian demand for money?

76 / 100

76) Which of the following is incorrect about classical theory of money?

77 / 100

77) Which of the following is the advantage of financial intermediaries?

78 / 100

78) The process of indirect finance using financial intermediaries is known as?

79 / 100

79) Which of the following is incorrect about equity (common stock) and debt holder?

80 / 100

80) Which one is not Activities and responsibilities of Central Banks?

81 / 100

81) According to the Heckscher-Ohlin model, a country that is relatively abundant in capital will tend to:

82 / 100

82) Static comparative advantage goods in developing countries

83 / 100

83) The form of economic integration in which the member nations eliminate tariffs on trade among themselves, adopt a common external tariff wall. and allow for the free movement of labor and capital within the union is the

84 / 100

84) If a good is imported into (large) country H from country F, then the imposition of a tariff in country H

85 / 100

85) Intra-industry trade can be explained in part by:

86 / 100

86) Which trade theory suggests that a newly produced good, once exported, could ultimately end up being imported as the technology is transferred to lower-cost nations?

87 / 100

87) Which of the following is an example of a regional trade agreement?

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88) Which of the following is an example of a comparative advantage?

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89) process of seeing what changes in the value of the dep’t variable is consequent on a change in the value of one or more of the variables in project analysis is :

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90) An increase in the net working capital in a project corresponds a cash outflow to be financed. In project analysis costs are easier to identify or value than project benefits.

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91) Suppose you are some type investor and submitted your investment to Ethiopian investment commission, and then a team of investment commissioners started to analyze your proposal. Hence this stage is:

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92) Which one of the following is a micro level source of a project:

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93) If a project involves improvement in several non-monetary dimensions, we use which method?

94 / 100

94) In economic analysis, we cannot use market price to value the economic worth of projects, because of the following reasons, except?

95 / 100

95) Ex-post evaluation involves the following, except?

96 / 100

96) Which one of the following statement is true regarding monitoring and evaluation?

97 / 100

97) The line joining the different points of consumer’s equilibrium resulting from the change only in the price of the commodity is called

98 / 100

98) Assume a budget line is drawn for two commodities: X on the x-axis and Y on the y-axis. If the income of the consumer is 100 Birr, the y-intercept is 4, and the slope of the budget line is 2 in absolute value, the price of commodity Y is:

99 / 100

99) Which one of the following is correct?

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100) In a single commodity case; If MUX > Px, how will the consumer react?

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The quiz has expired!

706

2nd Round Management Model exam,2016

Time allowed :2 1/2  hrs.

Exam Weight : 100%

Value of each question is 1 point

Exam Type: Multiple choice

Switch off your Mobile phone

Any form of misconduct  will invalidate your result

1 / 100

1. 96. ABC Company produces two types of products: bag and shoes. Each unit of bag requires 4 units of raw material A, 2 units of raw material B, and 3 units of raw material C. Each unit of shoes requires 10 units of raw material A, one unit of raw material B, and 3 units of raw material C. The inventory count indicates that 100, 22, and 39 units of raw material A, B, and C are available, respectively. Each unit of bag yields a profit of Birr 60 and each unit (pair) of shoes yields a profit of Birr 50. How many units of bag and shoes should be produced, respectively?

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2. 47. Mr. Abebe is a laboratory technician at Salale University. While conducting research, he manipulates variables to study the effect on another variable. What type of research is being conducted by Mr. Abebe?

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3. 85. The layout in which all the equipment’s performing similar tasks are grouped together is called……?

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4. 63. Cooperative Bank of Oromia, previously operating only in Ethiopia, enters Kenyan market with its current banking services. A business growth strategy used by the bank is-

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5. 95. Berhan Furniture creates tables and chairs. Each table requires 2 hours of carpentry and 3 hours of painting, while each chair needs 1 hour of carpentry and 2 hours of painting. There are only 12 hours of carpentry and 15 hours of painting available per week. Each unit of table yields a profit of Birr 40 and chair yields a profit of Birr 20 per unit. What will be the objective of the company?

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6. 99. A decision tree is preferable to a decision table when-

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7. 38. Which type of organizational change involves making incremental adjustments to existing processes and procedures?

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8. 8. According to human relations school management is

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9. 77. Which of the following statements about the project payback period is least accurate

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10. 58. If we reject the null hypothesis which is true, we commit

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11. 98. The solution to transportation problem with m-sources and n-destinations is feasible if the number of allocations is-

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12. 29. ________an employment interview conducted to know whether the candidate can handle the demands of a complex job.

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13. 65. Which of the followings is correctly ordered regarding the knowledge management systems?

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14. 17. Different strategies are suitable for different companies depending on their particular situation. This is articulated by the “EPRG Framework”. What are the four options of the EPRG Framework?

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15. 70. Which of the following is/are the characteristics of business mission statement?

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16. 32. One cannot define Personality

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17. 31. The theory which states there is no one best way of managing or managerial technique universally applicable in all situations; rather, it depends upon a given set of circumstances is

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18. 79. Which one of the following is NOT a reason for conducting feasibility study?

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19. 100. The critical path in network problem is-

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20. 7. What type of controlling is related with screening job applicants and using several effective interviews, managers can minimize the chance of hiring people who lack necessary skills or experience to perform effectively?

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21. 18. One of the early problems faced by Toyota when it attempted to market its line of automobiles in the Japan was a severe shortage of spare parts. If Toyota’s management makes the decision to correct this problem, in which of the following components of the product component model would management need to make improvement?

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22. 28. An approach to disciplinary action designed to motivate an employee to correct his or her misconduct voluntarily is ______________.

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23. 39. Which leadership style emphasizes nurturing and empowering employees to achieve their full potential?

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24. 81. Which one of the following statement is incorrect about the importance of studying operations management?

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25. 83. ……refers to the process of creating new products or modifying the existing ones within a predetermined time frame and cost price

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26. 48. Mr. Chala, who is conducting research on “consumers buying behavior,” collects data using questionnaire from the same sample three times. What is the type of survey employed by Mr. Chala?

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27. 78. The initial cash outlay of a project is Birr 50,000 and it generates cash inflows of Birr 20,000, Birr 15,000, Birr 25,000 and Birr 10,000 in first four years and assume 10% rate of discount. Using present value index method the net present value is,

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28. 87. Which of the following does not affect the choice of plant location decision?

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29. 56. You are given the following information about advertising expenditure and sales: . Advertisement (x) (100, 000 Birr) Sales (y) (100,000 Birr)
Arithmetic mean, x 10 90
Standard deviation, σ 3 12
Correlation coefficient = 0.8

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30. 13. Which of the following is false about organizational buying behavior?

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31. 84. . ……is the system in which items are processed in lots and a new lot is undertaken for production only when the production on all items of a lot is complete.

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32. 19. An arrangement to pay for import of goods and services with something other than cash is known as _________

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33. 30. One is not the major characteristics of Organization behavior:

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34. 89. The term _________________ refers to the period in which the project will generate the necessary cash flow to recover the initial investment.

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35. 40. What is the term for a planned process for managing resistance to change in an organization?

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36. 71. While analyzing internal environment strategist’s decision about firm’s resources, capabilities and core competences are affected by:

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37. 33. _______________ is “a small number of people with complementary skills who are committed to a common purpose, performance goals, and approach for which they hold themselves mutually accountable.

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38. 37. Which factor contributes to successful change implementation?

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39. 41. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of transformational leadership?

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40. 66. Which of the followings is an Operations Support Systems?

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41. 6. All of the following are importance of planning except,

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42. 73. Which of the following statement best expresses retrenchment?

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43. 25. All are benefits of performance appraisal for the appraise Except,

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44. 74. Which one of the following statements is related with the company’s market position, competitive pressures, strengths and capabilities?

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45. 27. _______________ is a performance rating error existing when some raters have a tendency to be generous in their rating by assigning higher rates constantly.

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46. 91. When capital market is booming, firms can take market route to ________.

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47. 61. Currently, SAFARICOM Ethiopia, a telecom operator in Ethiopia, has been highly engaged in providing incentives, such as discounts and prizes for its customers to initiate the interests of customers to use their services. The promotion strategy adopted by a company is:

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48. 34. All are the Features of Motivations except one

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49. 90. A method of budgeting that estimates today’s value of money to be received in the future is______________.

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50. 22. ___ is merely a temporary business investment involving renting or leasing an
Opportunity, not the purchase of a business for the purpose of ownership

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51. 51. ______ is level of measurement which classifies data into categories that can be ranked.

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52. 60. In which product life cycle does peoples become unaware of the product or service, sales may rise very slow, and promotional costs will probably be high?

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53. 44. Which of the following is TRUE about applied research?

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54. 50. Which of the following statement regarding quantitative and qualitative data is FALSE?

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55. 49. Which one of the following CANNOT be the purpose of report writing in research?

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56. 54. On the average, 2 customers will be served in every ten minutes in Commercial bank of Ethiopia. What is the probability that during a given 10 minutes at least one customer will be served?

57 / 100

57. 52. Suppose Oromia cooperative bank wants to estimate the average income of its employees per month. Accordingly it takes 5 sample employees and the salary of each employees are 6750, 9940, 8754, 12,560 and 10,376 birr per month. What is the average salary of the bank per month?

58 / 100

58. 80. Which of the following is FALSE regarding to financial and economic analysis of the project?

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59. 20. Under _______, the strategy is to simultaneously pioneer the newly developed product in all kinds of global markets.

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60. 57. Which one of the following used to test the independence of two variables?

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61. 12. .It is arranging for the product to occupy a clear, distinctive and desirable place relative to competing product in the mind of target customer?

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62. 24. The process of helping new employees adapt to their new organizations and work responsibilities is ______.

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63. 93. If acceptance of one project do not disqualifies the acceptance of the other project, such type of project is:

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64. 88. ……is the degree to which the design specifications for a product or service are appropriate to its function and use, and the degree to which a product or service conforms to its design specifications

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65. 4.__________ involves evaluating the candidates and choosing the one whose credential match job requirement.

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66. 59. Which of the following form of business has limited liability?

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67. 2.Among the following alternatives which one is not the activity performed in organizing function of management?

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68. 67. Assume that a group of individuals with common political interest leverages of an organization’s computers and information via the Internet, and caused physical, real-world harm or severe disruption of the computers and information infrastructure. What does this act represent?

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69. 1.      From the following alternatives, which one is not correct?

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70. 42. Which leadership style encourages employees to participate in decision-making and problem-solving?

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71. 43. Which of the following is a strategy for building change readiness in an organization?

72 / 100

72. 23. Which of the following is NOT the internal factors that affect recruitment functions?

73 / 100

73. 15. Which one is not reason of international marketing

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74. 21. “International marketing is a global procedure of planning and executing conception, pricing, promotion” The definition fails to recognize

75 / 100

75. 36. ____________is solely power as a result of his or her position in the organization reward, coercive, and legitimate power

76 / 100

76. 86. Which of the following is not an objective of MRP?

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77. 11. Among the give alternative one is not the importance of promotion

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78. 68. Which one of the following is CORRECT?

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79. 3.__________ is a leadership style in which the decision making activity is made solely by the manager.

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80. 26. Which of the following is a NOT area at which compensation package is important in the workplace?

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81. 16. which one is odd from the given factors for firms marketing abroad _________________

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82. 9. Channel decisions must be considered carefully for the following reasons, except?

83 / 100

83. 69. Which of the following is/are NOT the benefits of strategy?

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84. 46. Which of the following CANNOT be the purpose of a research proposal?

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85. 72. Which of the following is associated with the type of leadership in the organization and the overall style of management of operations?

86 / 100

86. 14. ………..is the stage of new product development the product and marketing program are tested in more realistic market setting

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87. 64. ABC restaurant noticed that people were cooking meals in their homes less often but wanted to avoid the hassle of going out to eat. People wanted to ‘‘eat in’’ without cooking. By considering this issue, ABC restaurant company started delivering food to customers’ homes and businesses by takeout taxi. This business idea “delivering food by takeout taxi” is the result of-

88 / 100

88. 45. Ayantu, fourth year management student, examines the collected raw data to detect errors and omissions and to correct these when possible. The activity performed by Ayantu is:

89 / 100

89. 97. Which of the following cannot be the aim of transportation problem?

90 / 100

90. 10. ______ is a method that the price of a product is decided based on the perception of consumers rather than sellers cost as the key factor

91 / 100

91. 53. If the probability that a product will be well designed is 0.80 and the
probability that it will be well designed and change preference of customer is 0.6, what is the probability that it will change customer preference given that well designed?

92 / 100

92. 75. All of the following are among the common features of project except

93 / 100

93. 35. The type of conflict that occurs when two or more organizational members disagree on their task or content issues

94 / 100

94. 62. Which of the following CAN be the failure factor for small businesses?

95 / 100

95. 94. Which of the following is/are NOT the feature of operations research?

96 / 100

96. 92. The long-run objective of financial management is to _____________.

97 / 100

97. 55. Which of the following is the non-random method of selecting samples from a population?

98 / 100

98. 5. Which one of the following is correct regarding to managerial skills?

99 / 100

99. 82. Which of the following is TRUE about business strategies?

100 / 100

100. 76. The component of project feasibility study that determines whether the prerequisites for the successful commissioning of the project have been considered is

Your score is

0%

171

2nd Round Logistics and Supply chain Mnanagement Model Exit Exam

Choice the Best Answer

1 / 99

What is the purpose of a packing list in customs procedures?

2 / 99

Which one of the following wrong procedure in the international competitive bidding?

3 / 99

Marisol is using an organizing process in her business. How will the final outcome of this process address position of Marisol as the boss of the company?

4 / 99

Which one of the following statements is false?

5 / 99

Which supply chain information system tools are used to automate transactions such as order entry, order processing, transportation, and related financial transactions?

6 / 99

Which one of the following is not correct about evaluation of tender?

7 / 99

The more you can convince the other that you value a particular outcome outside the bargaining range of the other, the more pressure you put on the other party to set by one of the following resistance points:

8 / 99

What does the consolidation services of a freight forwarder do for the customer?

9 / 99

The set of shared beliefs and values that underlie a company’s identity is referred to as:

10 / 99

There are five main areas of performance in a logistics measurement system. Which of the five areas measures how cost-effective the organization is at meeting consumer requirements?

11 / 99

One among the following aims to reduce the impact of factors such as pollutants, deforestation, ozone depletion, and global warming affecting the environment

12 / 99

In which phase of the development process are all design decisions completed?

13 / 99

Which one of the following is not the objectives of negotiation?

14 / 99

A supply chain is alternatively referred to by what name?

15 / 99

college or university bookshop wants to get some insights into how students feel about the shop’s merchandise, prices and service. What type of research would be appropriate in the following situation

16 / 99

The properties of e-money that should be considered in transactions as how well money holds its value over time and how easy money is to store, and access called______.

17 / 99

Which of the following is an example of a non-documentary trade barrier?

18 / 99

OB is the study of _____________ in the organization

19 / 99

Which of the following statement is incorrect regarding PESTEL analysis?

20 / 99

A foundry produces circular utility access hatches (manhole covers). If 120 covers are produced in a 10-hour shift, the productivity of the line is

21 / 99

Someone who works at Procter & Gamble, who is responsible for the production, marketing, and profitability of the Tide detergent product line is called a:

22 / 99

A supply chain driven by actual customer orders or purchases follows a ________ model.

23 / 99

What does the term “free trade zone” refer to?

24 / 99

Ali and Gemechu are both university students studying for a final exam in OB. Both students have a goal of making a grade of 90 percent or better despite the time pressures they seem to be facing. Gemechu studied diligently for six hours and made a grade percent of 92 percent. Ali studied diligently for nine hours and also made a grade of 92 percent. Referring to Scenario 1-3, which of the students was effective

25 / 99

All are the factors that affect foreign procurement except —

26 / 99

Which of the following is not a reason that negotiations fail?

27 / 99

Which type of items is the appropriate procurement strategy to force competition between suppliers, when there are many suppliers to choose from for these items?

28 / 99

One is not the economic measure among the following?

29 / 99

Alpha Company has a performance standard of 97% fill rate. Last month it achieved a 94% fill rate. This is an example of…

30 / 99

Which of the following is not a process commonly considered in making products or delivering services?

31 / 99

Which document is used to prove the value and authenticity of goods?

32 / 99

Which one of the following economic utilities extremely provided by logistics?

33 / 99

What is triple bottom line?

34 / 99

Make-to-stock operational strategy is similar to one of the following Supply chain strategies, which one is the SC strategy?

35 / 99

A certain type of computer costs $1,000, and the annual holding cost is 25% of the value of the item. Annual demand is 10,000 units, and the order cost is $150 per order. What is the approximate economic order quantity?

36 / 99

______is a group of people who are the focus of the interest of researcher.

37 / 99

What is the role of a customs tariff in customs procedures?

38 / 99

The key players in any transportation that takes place within a supply chain are

39 / 99

One key reason for increasing importance of transportation from a supply chain perspective is:

40 / 99

Competitiveness does not include

41 / 99

It is cheaper to transport goods in a single 1000 km shipment than in two shipments of 500 km each. Which principle does this refer to?

42 / 99

From the perspective of logistics, customer is ______.

43 / 99

All of the following are challenges of Strategic Supply Chain Management, except ________.

44 / 99

Which types of information systems produce a variety of information about products and services for internal and external use?

45 / 99

E-commerce payment system in which the buyer is clearly identified and the card is validated against computer of the issuing bank computer before payment is made is known as _____?

46 / 99

_____ is the specification of methods and procedures for acquiring the information needed to structure or solve problems.

47 / 99

The two main styles of research are ______

48 / 99

The process of determining what needs to be purchased and when so that it is most helpful to the project is known as what?

49 / 99

Which one of the following is incorrect about e-commerce?

50 / 99

Which types of logistics concerned with receiving and storing raw materials and components that are needed for production?

51 / 99

Which of the following statements about the class rate system is false?

52 / 99

A legal document that travels with the shipment and describes exactly what is in the shipment is —

53 / 99

One of the current trends in Operations and Supply Chain Management is Sustainable Supply Chain Management, which encourages supply chain managers to consider the three bottom lines listed below, except

54 / 99

Quantitative research involves

55 / 99

What is operations management?

56 / 99

A salesman may be using _____ if he lies to you or makes promises he cannot fulfill.

57 / 99

The sales of cycle in a shop in four consecutive months are given as 70, 68, 82, and 95. Exponentially smoothing average method with a smoothing factor of 0.4 is used in forecasting. The expected number of sales in the next month is.

58 / 99

What are the most critical precursors for achieving negotiation objectives?

59 / 99

Identify the wrong statement regarding contract management and contract administration

60 / 99

Which of the following supply chain strategies creates value by allowing suppliers to have economies of scale?

61 / 99

A research paper is a brief report of research work based on _____

62 / 99

Sam is a sales manager at a car dealership. He is instituting a salesperson of the month program where the top seller gets a plaque to hang on their office wall along with a free lunch. Sam is using _____ power.

63 / 99

The ___________ concept suggests that the customer desires a product offering that is highly tailored to the customer’s exact preferences.

64 / 99

The internal growth strategies in which an organization expands itself into different areas, whether related or unrelated to its core business called______.

65 / 99

Which of the following statements about the basic EOQ model is FALSE?

66 / 99

Which of the following is not listed as one of the values of service characteristics for transportation?

67 / 99

Senayit Gemechu works as a sales manager at a telecom firm. The company has recently launched a new product in the market. Her work in the next few weeks involves sharing knowledge about the product with her team members. She will also need to inspire them to reach their sales targets and clarify any doubts about the new product. Which of the following roles is Senayit playing?

68 / 99

All of the following are typical processes involved in supply chain management except _____.

69 / 99

MRP is a _____________ function

70 / 99

Why is active listening important in integrative bargaining?

71 / 99

When all the different stages of a supply chain work toward the objective of maximizing total supply chain profitability, rather than each stage devoting itself to its own profitability without considering total supply chain profit, it is known as

72 / 99

Which term refers to the transfer of goods from one mode of transport to another during transit?

73 / 99

Samantha owns a line of shops which sell luxurious cakes and desserts. Most of her ingredients come from Brazil, but a recent increase in tariffs has forced her to think about her supplying options. She is thinking about whether or not to pay for the higher new price or find a new supplier. What does this impact MOST?

74 / 99

Which one is/are doesn’t explain about narrow span of control

75 / 99

Which supply chain planning function determines how much product is needed to satisfy all customer demands?

76 / 99

Which one of the following states that end items are to be produced, when these items are needed, and what quantities are needed?

77 / 99

A job shop is an example of a(n):

78 / 99

Which one of the following objectives must be a simultaneously achieve to logistical integration?

79 / 99

Assume that, AU has recently decided to install a new IT system to improve the efficiency of its payroll function. AU believes this will reduce the cost of running the payroll system by 15%. Which one of the following levels of strategy is the above IT system most closely linked to?

80 / 99

Which one of the following characteristics is not necessarily true about groups?

81 / 99

A cost trade-off is a situation where:

82 / 99

_______means that an Ethiopian importer is allowed to use his/her own hard currency for the payment of the goods instead of applying for it and getting it from the government

83 / 99

Gourmet Pretzels bakes soft pretzels on an assembly line. It currently bakes 800 pretzels each eight-hour shift. If the production is increased to 1,2…

84 / 99

Which one of the following is important to provide dependable transportation service and to foster economic development?

85 / 99

What is the purpose of a bill of lading in logistics management?

86 / 99

Which one of the following supply chain phenomena describing small fluctuations in demand at the retail level can cause progressively larger fluctuations in demand at the wholesale, distributor, or raw materials supplier?

87 / 99

Which supply chain strategy would be best when the demand uncertainty is high and firms want to respond to customers quickly?

88 / 99

Which type of processing system tends to produce the most product variety?

89 / 99

All of the following are potential benefits of B2B e-commerce except:

90 / 99

Which one of the following design options of the transport network is that a truck either delivers a product from a single supplier to multiple retailers or goes from multiple suppliers to a single buyer location?

91 / 99

Which of the following elements is NOT involved in the controlling process?

92 / 99

Tina is a CEO of a large manufacturing company that she wants to move overseas. The culture there is very different and Tina knows that she has to prepare for the meetings there. Which of the following would be a good solution to one of the first obstacles she is going to encounter?

93 / 99

Which one of the features of e-commerce indicated as it can be everywhere?

94 / 99

Felicia manages the training department. She notices that Adam, the training assistant, is bored performing the same, repetitive tasks and often has idle time throughout the day. The low morale of Adam concerns Felicia since he is a good employee. Which of the following actions would BEST address this situation?

95 / 99

Which one of the following information technology systems, is a highly analytical application whose purpose is to assess plant capacity, material availability, and customer demand?

96 / 99

A bid may be rejected under all of the following circumstances except cases where:

97 / 99

Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding supply chain management?

98 / 99

An inventory decision rule states that when the inventory level goes down to 14 gearboxes, 100 gearboxes will be ordered. Which of the following statements is TRUE?

99 / 99

Type of research that aims at finding a solution for an immediate problem faced by any business organization is known as?

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59

Second Model Exit Exam for chemistry

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554

2nd round model exam for accounting and finance students

choose the best answer

1 / 100

   Liu Electronics budgeted sales of $400,000 for the month of November; cost of goods sold is equal to 65% of sales. Beginning inventory for November was $80,000 and ending inventory for November should be $72,000. How much are the budgeted purchases for November?

2 / 100

One of the following is true about plant property equipment

3 / 100

A factor used to systematically link an indirect cost to a cost object is called

4 / 100

All of the following items are debited to Work-in -process account except

5 / 100

What basis of accounting would the Enterprise Fund use?

6 / 100

  Which of the following statement is correct?

7 / 100

A gain or loss arising from the re-measurement of an investment property should

8 / 100

Which one of the following is not true

9 / 100

A favorable price variance for direct materials indicates that:

10 / 100

The period at which share based payment entitlement satisfied

11 / 100

Suppose on January 1, 2021 Sally Company sold merchandise which worth Birr 150,000 on account terms 2/10, n/30, and FOB destination to Sony Company. On January 8, the buyer returned a portion of the goods worth Birr 5000 as they were found to be the wrong model. What will be the entry to record return of merchandise under perpetual inventory system?

12 / 100

If overhead is under applied, then:

13 / 100

IFRS suggests trade-offs between ___________ and ________for selection ofmeasurement principles; historical cost principle or fair value principle.

14 / 100

Assume for the year 2020 Lexy Corporation’s financial statements reported the following: Net income: $ 100, 000, depreciation expense: 10,000, increase in account receivable: 30,000 and decrease in account payable amounts: 15,000. What will be the amount of net Cash provided by Operating Activities?

15 / 100

All the things equal, diversification is most effective when

16 / 100

  Cash includes all except one:

17 / 100

A cost that would be classified as part of both prime costand conversion cost would be: 

18 / 100

On January 1, Walif Corp. acquired 80% of Metek Corp.’s $10 par common stock for $975,000. The remaining 20% of this stock is held by YOM Co., an unrelated party. On the acquisition date for this business combination, the carrying amount of Metek’s net assets was $1 million. The fair values of the assets acquired and liabilities assumed were the same as their carrying amounts on Metek’s balance sheet except for plant assets (net), the fair value of which was $100,000 in excess of the carrying amount. The fair value of the non-controlling interest is 20% of the fair value of the acquirer’s net assets at the acquisition date. (No exceptions to the recognition or measurement principles apply.) For the year ended December 31, Metek had net income of $190,000 and paid cash dividends totalling $125,000. In the December 31 consolidated balance sheet, the non-controlling interest is reported at

19 / 100

The ___________ is the government’s official annual report prepared and published as a matter of public record.

20 / 100

According to IAS 41 an entity recognize a biological asset except

21 / 100

Under the effective-interest method of bond discount or premium amortization, the periodic interest expense is equal to

22 / 100

  Which of the following statements about the risk-return tradeoff is true?

23 / 100

   In the case of a bank overdraft:

24 / 100

The most difficult type of misstatement to detect fraud is based on:

25 / 100

Which of the following best describes systematic risk?

26 / 100

What is the balance of interest expense on December 31, 2019

27 / 100

Moon Company uses Activity-based costing for Product X and Product Y. The total estimated overhead cost for the parts administration activity pool was $550,000 and the expected activity was 2000 part types. If Product Y requires 1200 part types, the amount of overhead allocated to product Y for parts administration would be:

28 / 100

__________ are obligation on a bank or other depository institutions to maintain a specified proportion of total assets in liquid form.

29 / 100

One of the following is not true about liability

30 / 100

Assume the profit before tax of XYZ, a corporate firm is Br. 22.5 million. How much money should be paid by XYZ as a business income tax?

31 / 100

What is the balance of amount amortized on January 1, 2021

32 / 100

Which of the following is not a characteristic of a joint operation?

33 / 100

Under IFRS, cash and cash equivalentsare reported:

34 / 100

Which one of the following is within the scope of IAS 41?

35 / 100

A valuation base requiring assessment of the price that is fair between the two knowledgeable and willing parties

36 / 100

If companies fails to make adjustments for prepayments initiallyrecorded as an asset,what will be the effect except

37 / 100

Assume AA co. pays br.600, 000 to purchase 75% of the shares of DK co. The fair value of 100% of DK co. identifiable net assets is br.400, 000. (Assume published FV of minorities’ br.200, 000). Based on the given information answer the following question no. 80and 81

38 / 100

One of the following is true about research and development costs under GAAP and IFRS

39 / 100

Which matters will not be included in the audit strategy?

40 / 100

The probability that the economy will experience a recession next year is 30%, while the probability of moderate growth or rapid expansion are 50% and 20%, respectively. The stock Firm A is expected to return 5%, 15%, or 20%, depending on whether the economy experiences a recession, moderate growth or rapid expansion, respectively. Calculate the expected return and standard deviation for firm A.

41 / 100

Which of the following statements is false?

42 / 100

In the month of June, department X had 10,000 units in beginning work in process that were 70% complete. During June, 40,000 units were completed and transferred into production from another department. At the end of June, there were 5,000 units in ending work in process that were 40% complete. Materials are added at the beginning of the process, while conversion costs are incurred uniformly throughout the process. The total cost for materials was $450,000 and conversion was $400,000. What was the unit conversion cost in June?

43 / 100

One of the following is incorrectly matched

44 / 100

  Identify the false statement related to the term cost

45 / 100

Assets classified as non-current in accordance with IAS 1 presentation of Financial Statements _________ they meet the criteria to be classified as held for sale in accordance with IFRS 5.

46 / 100

Time value of money explains that:

47 / 100

A cash-settled share-based payment transaction is a share-based payment transaction in which the entity acquires goods or services by incurring a liability to transfer cash or other assets to the supplier of those goods or services for amounts that are based on:

48 / 100

If the fair value of the property on April 30, 2022 was 3 million, what was the effect? (assume the entity use fair value model)

49 / 100

One of the following is true about fair value measurement if there is a quoted price in an active market for an identical asset or liability

50 / 100

   If selling price per unit is $200, variable costs per unit are $120, total fixed costs are $2,000, the tax rate is 30%, and the company sells 40 units, net income is:

51 / 100

Identify the false statement related to equity settled share based payment

52 / 100

ABC Company sells its only product for birr 19 per unit, variable production costs are birr 13 per unit, and selling and administrative costs are birr 4.50 per unit. Fixed costs for 10,000 units are birr 5,000. The contribution margin is:

53 / 100

Suppose Company A has a machine costing 1,000,000. Tax depreciation for special purpose statement amounted to 500,000 and derereciation expense for general purpose statement amounted to 300,000. If the effective tax rate of company A is 30 %, identify the correct statement according to IAS 12

54 / 100

As per IFRS 17 contractual service margin

55 / 100

  In order to construct a riskless portfolio using two risky stocks, one would need to find two stocks with a correlation coefficient of _________.

56 / 100

At December 31, Sandafa Corp. owned 80% of Jote Corp.’s common stock and 90% of Chancho Corp.’s common stock. Jote’s net income for the year was $200,000 and Chancho’s net income was $400,000. Combined financial statements are being prepared for Chancho and Jote in contemplation of their sale to an outside party. In the combined income statement, combined net income should be reported at Chancho and Jote had no inter-entity ownership or transactions during the year.

57 / 100

What is the balance of direct labor cost?

58 / 100

  The use of pre numbered checks in disbursing cash is an application of the principle of:

59 / 100

Which of the following is not true about opinion on financial statements?

60 / 100

Which of the following can be a criterion for the acceptance of a project?

61 / 100

Suppose on January 1, 2023 Zemen Company receives Br.120, 000 cash advance applicable for the next six month rent. What will be the entry on the book of Zemen on January 1, 2023?

62 / 100

Assume Commercial Bank of Ethiopia agrees to lend Br.5, 000,000 on January 1, 2022, to Saba Co. If Saba signs a Br.5, 000,000, 10 percent, six-month note. What will the balance of cash expected to payable by Saba company on maturity period

63 / 100

  If you need $12,000 in one year, how much do you have to deposit today if the interest rate is 10%?

64 / 100

An entity owns a number of herds of cattle. Where should the change in fair value of herds of cattle be recognized in the financial statements

65 / 100

Identify the Incorrect statement/s about categories of tax payers

66 / 100

For equity-settled share-based payment transactions for employee services, the fair value of the equity instruments is measured:

67 / 100

Identify the correct composition of cost classification on the basis of relation to production process

68 / 100

One of the following is not necessarily deducted as business expense to arrive at taxable business income

69 / 100

“Some risk cannot be diversified away and is due to the overall exposure of an investment to movements in the economy.” This quote is referring to:

70 / 100

Equity investments acquired by a corporation which accounted for recognizing unrealized holding gains or losses as other comprehensive income

71 / 100

When designing audit procedures tracing of source documents to the customers subsidiary ledger and subsequently to the general ledger is done to satisfy what assertion

72 / 100

Which of the following is not one of the steps used in assigning costs to individual jobs?

73 / 100

Management’s designs and implementation of internal controls focused concepts are

74 / 100

The Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM) is primarily used to:

75 / 100

What is Financial Leverage?

76 / 100

Which of the following depreciation methods considersalvage value in computing the depreciation base of the asset except?

77 / 100

Assume New Generation Post Graduate College owned a building that has been used for delivering education service located at Jemo. The building had original cost of 4 million at the time of acquision, January 1, 2015 and useful life of 20 years. The national education policy requiring the post graduate applicants necessarily pass an entrance exam (GAT test). During the year 2022 most of the applicant fails to pass the exam as a result the college fails to get applicants for post graduate program. Consequently, on April 30, 2022 the college decided to rent the building located at Jemo and deliver education service at head office only located at Megenagna. Based on the given information answer question number 18 and 19(Use SLM)What was the Carrying value of the asset if the building depreciated up to April 30, 2022

78 / 100

What is the optimal capital structure?

79 / 100

If a merchandise sold on account is returned because of defects, the seller may issue____ to signify acceptance of merchandise returned from buyer

80 / 100

AD Corporation signed a three-month, zero-interest-bearing $152,205 note on November 1, 2015 for the purchase of $150,000 of inventory. The adjusting entry made at December 31, 2015 will include a

81 / 100

Assume on December 1, 2022 Zemen Company purchase merchandise which worth Birr 500,000 on account terms 3/15, n/45, and FOB shipping point from Lulit Trading. On December 15, the company made full payment for Lulit Trading. What will be the entry to record settlement of liability under periodic system?

82 / 100

An entity recognizesgoods or services receivedin a share-based payment transaction:

83 / 100

“Do not put all your eggs in one basket” related to the concept of

84 / 100

  _______________ implies that a financial instrument can be exchanged for any other asset and logically, the so formed asset may be transferred back into the original financial instrument.

85 / 100

  Beta measures:

86 / 100

ABC Metal Factory, VAT registered company, sold 50,000 units of corrugated iron sheets at VAT exclusive price of birr 500 per unit for the month of January. It has purchased 20,000 Kg. iron sheets at VAT inclusive price of Birr 60 per Kg. from DW metals raw material supplier. The factory has also imported chemicals worth of birr 2 million (including C.I.F and other duty excluding VAT for metal production in the month of January. Moreover, the company had a VAT refund of birr 75,600 for the previous month. Determine whether VAT payable (VAT refund) take place for the given month

87 / 100

  Suppose an exporter of powder tea spice has an access of two markets in Ethiopia for transacting tea spice. The first market located at Markato with daily trading volume of ten thousand Sacks of tea spice and selling price of Br. 30,000 per sack. While the second market is located at Saris has daily trading volume of 1,000 sacks with selling price of Br. 35,000 per Sack. The transportation cost amounted to Br.500 and Br 1000 for the first and second market respectively. And also selling cost of Br. 2000 and Br. 3000 for the first and second market respectively. Based on the given information what will be the fair value of the spice in accordance with IFRS 13?

88 / 100

Suppose Zema Manufacturing Company for the year 2015 have direct material cost- 20 % of prime cost and Conversion cost- Br. 450,000 and if factory overhead is 50 % of direct labor cost. Based on the given information answer question 49-5149. What is the balance of direct material cost?

89 / 100

According to the bird-in-hand theory, investors prefer:

90 / 100

One of the following is not criteria to capitalizingcosts incurred at development phase

91 / 100

When 20,000 units are produced, fixed costs are birr 16 per unit. Therefore, when 40,000 units are produced fixed costs will:

92 / 100

Sony Inc., has a target capital structure of 35% debt and 65% common equity, with no preferred stock. The before-tax cost of debt is 8%, and its marginal tax rate is 40%. The current stock price is =$22.00. The last dividend was D_0 =$2.25 and it is expected to grow at a 5% constant rate. What is weighted average cost of capital (WACC)?

93 / 100

Suppose KK Company acquired 60% of XX Company at Br. 3,000,000. Based on the given information, what is the implied value?

94 / 100

Both auditing and accounting are concerned with financial statements. Which of the following

95 / 100

Which of the following use current financial resources measurement focus?

96 / 100

Suppose Texas Corporation issued $1000, 000 of 10% term bonds on January 1, 2019, due on January 1, 2024, with interest payable annually. Investors require an effective-interest rate of 12%. Based on the given information answer question number 27-29. What is the present value of the bond on January 1, 2019

97 / 100

In Ethiopia, who is responsible for regulating companies’ financial reporting?

98 / 100

Deferred tax assets are the amounts of income taxes recoverable in future periods in respect of____________________ except

99 / 100

  Identify the CORRECT statement about employment income tax as applied in Ethiopian tax law

100 / 100

The total good will using proportionate (partial) method is:

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