Posted on May 27, 2024 by Haile GirmaEconomics second round model exit exam 2016 0% 373 123456789101112131415161718192021222324252627282930313233343536373839404142434445464748495051525354555657585960616263646566676869707172737475767778798081828384858687888990919293949596979899100 Created on May 27, 2024 Economics second round model exit exam 2016 Choose the best answer Name of StudentID NumberModality (egular, Extention or Weekend)Phone Number 1 / 100 1) A macroeconomic policy is said to be conducted by rule if policymakers: A) Announce in advance how policy will respond to various situations and commit themselves to following through on this announcement B) Are free to size up the situation case by case and choose whatever policy seems appropriate at the time C) Set policy according to election results or by rule of the ballot box D) Manipulate policy to ensure both low inflation and unemployment gradually 2 / 100 2) Which of the following statements is necessarily incorrect about AK endogenous growth model? A) It is the simplest endogenous model that gives a constant saving rate of endogenous growth B) It assumes a constant, exogenous saving rate and fixed level of the technology C) It shows elimination of diminishing returns leading to endogenous growth D) None of the above 3 / 100 3) Which one of the investment theory shows the linkage between fluctuation in investment and stock markets A) Neo classical theory B) Tobin q model C) Accelerator model D) None 4 / 100 4) According to the Life-Cycle hypothesis A) Consumption depends on permanent income B) Income experience random and temporary changes C) Consumption smoothing through saving and borrowing D) C = aYP 5 / 100 5) If the monetary base is $500 billion, the reserve deposit ratio is 0.1 and currency-deposit ratio is 0.6; what will be the money multiplier and the money supply respectively? A) 2.5 & $2500 billion B) 2.4 & $1200 billion C) 2.3 & $1150 billion D) 2.6 & $1300 billion 6 / 100 6) _____________is the purchase and sale of government securities by the central bank to maintain the proper level of money supply in the economy. A) Open Market Operation B) Reserve requirement C) Discount rate D) Money supply 7 / 100 7) According to Keynes the Motive for people to hold money as a cushion against an unexpected need is called A) Precautionary Motive B) Transactions Motive C) Speculative Motive D) All 8 / 100 8) Which of the following countries have greater balance of payment? A) France B) Fiji C) Ghana D) Uganda 9 / 100 9) Which of the following represents trade pessimists? A) Promotes competition B) Generates pressures for increased efficiencies C) Attracts foreign capital and expertise D) Protect infant industries 10 / 100 10) Pick a region of the world among which the life expectancy is relatively highest A) Sub Saharan Africa B) East Asia C) Latin America D) Developed countries 11 / 100 11) One of the following factors inversely affects the demand for education A) The higher income earning differential between employment in modern sector job and traditional job B) Cultural tradition refuses of education C) The higher job opportunity for educated citizens D) The lower private cost of education 12 / 100 12) Which of the following is not economic cost of corruption? A) It leads to inefficient economic outcomes B) It develops rent seeking behavior C) Undermine state’s legitimacy D) None of the above 13 / 100 13) Which of the following is not causes of inequality? A) Overt discrimination B) Exclusivity of public goods C) Unequal access to resources D) None of the above 14 / 100 14) Which of the following is false according to Lewis model regarding traditional sector? A) Low wages B) Abundance of capital C) Low productivity D) MPL=0 15 / 100 15) The physical quality of life index (PQLI) is an aggregation of widely available indicators of basic human needs. Which of the following is not a component of the PQLI? A) life expectancy B) per capita income C) infant mortality D) literacy 16 / 100 16) Non-traded goods do not enter measured GDP because A) They are intermediate goods B) They are not traded in the market C) There is no value-added in the production of such goods D) Their value is not captured by the exchange rate method of conversion to a common unit 17 / 100 17) A ________ occurs if all players in a game play their best strategies regardless of what their competitors do. A) Dominant strategy B) Prisoner’s dilemma C) Nash equilibrium D) tit‐for‐tat strategy 18 / 100 18) The general equilibrium of production occurs at a point where the _________ is the same for all the firms, that is, at a point which satisfies the Pareto Optimality criterion of efficiency in factor substitution. A) Marginal Rate of Substitution B) Marginal Rate of Product Transformation C) Marginal Rate of Technical Substitution D) None of these 19 / 100 19) A profit-maximizing firm hires labor up to the point where A) The wage times the quantity of labor equals the marginal product B) Price equals the wage C) price equals the quantity of labor D) The wage equals value of marginal product 20 / 100 20) Oligopolistic industries are characterized by: A) A few dominant firms and independent decision-making. B) A large number of firms and independent decision-making C) A few dominant firms and interdependent decision-making D) A large number of firms and interdependent decision-making. 21 / 100 21) When comparing monopolistic competition and perfect competition markets, which of the following is true? A) Excess economic profits may be earned in the long run for both market structures B) There are fewer sellers in perfect competition than in monopolistic competition C) Both have unreasonably entry and exit conditions D) Product differentiation is the biggest single difference between the two market structures 22 / 100 22) The following is incorrect about the relationship between MC, AVC and ATC curves A) MC curve cuts both ATC and AVC at their minimum level B) If MC > ATC , AC is decreasing C) AVC reaches its minimum level before ATC curves D) As output increase the gaps between AVC and AC decrease. 23 / 100 23) Implicit costs are costs : A) Firms incur for the factor of production that purchased from market B) Costs for own used inputs C) Accounting cost D) Included in accounting cost calculation 24 / 100 24) A form of oligopoly in which a dominant firm sets the price and all smaller firms in the industry follow the dominant firm’s pricing policy is called A) The Cournot model. B) The Bertrand model. C) A cartel. D) The price‐leadership model. 25 / 100 25) According to the balanced growth theory, underdevelopment would be solved by A) Applying massive capital to few industries B) Launching a step by step investment in the industrial sector C) Applying capital to a wide range of industries at the same time D) Massive investment in the leading sector 26 / 100 26) Which one of the following is not correct A) Growth without development is sustainable B) Development is hardly possible without growth, but growth is possible without development. C) Development is multidimensional process involving major changes in social structures, popular attitudes, and national institutions, as well as the acceleration of economic growth. D) Economic growth is the increase in the output of goods and services of a country per unit time. 27 / 100 27) The type of monopoly that was created due to efficiency in producing certain product A) Natural monopoly B) Patent monopoly C) Pure monopoly D) Differentiated monopoly 28 / 100 28) Which of the following is not the possible sources of monopoly? A) Legal restriction B) Efficiency C) Control over key raw materials D) Symmetric information. 29 / 100 29) Under perfectly competitive market in long run, equilibrium condition for firms will be: A) P>LAC B) BLAC>P C) P=LAC D) None 30 / 100 30) In TR-TC approach, firms in perfectly competitive market get positive profit at the point where; A) The difference between TR and TC are negative B) TC> TR C) TR=TC D) TR > TC 31 / 100 31) Identify correct statement about the assumption of perfectly competitive market structure A) Easy for consumers to identify the product of each firms B) Inelastic supply curve for the firm C) With market price firms can sell any amount of output D) Strong role of government. 32 / 100 32) Given the supply and demand functions for two related goods, tea and coffee, Q_d^t=30-8P_t+2P_c , Q_S^t=-15+2P_t 〖 Q〗_d^c=28+4P_t-6P_C , Q_S^C=12+2P_C Where〖 Q〗_d^t,〖 Q〗_d^c, Q_S^t, Q_(S,)^C P_t and P_c represented quantity demand for tea and coffee, supply of tea and coffee, price of tea and coffee respectively. What is the equilibrium price of tea A) 4 .72 B) 3.52 C) 3.75 D) None 33 / 100 33) Given the supply and demand functions for two related goods, tea and coffee, A) None B) 3.52 C) 3.75 D) 5.44 34 / 100 34) Which one of the following represent the solution of difference equation x_(t+1)=1⁄2 x_t+3 A) x_(t=(〖2)〗^t ) (x_0-6)+6 B) x_(t=〖((1)⁄2)〗^t ) (x_0-6)+6 C) x_(t=3〖(1⁄2)〗^t ) D) None 35 / 100 35) Which one of the following is the general solution of differential equation (x ) ̇+2x=8 A) x=Ce^(-2t) B) x=Ce^(-2t)+8 C) X=Ce^(-2t)+4 D) X=Ce^(1⁄2 t)+4 36 / 100 36) Given demand function p=30-4Q , what is consumer surplus at Q=5 A) 50 B) 30 C) 40 D) 60 37 / 100 37) The derivative of multivariate function y=x_1^2 x_2 , where x_1=t^2 and x_2=3t-1 is A) 2t2 + 3t B) 6t3 + 2t2 C) 15t4 – 4t3 D) none of the above 38 / 100 38) Suppose that m=100-200t+250t^2, where m is import and t is tariff. Using differential approximation what is the change in import if the initial tariff rate is 0.2 and it is scheduled to rise to 0.25? A) negative 5 B) negative 4.4 C) 6 D) 7.5 39 / 100 39) Given production and constraint functions Q=L^.25 K^0.75 and 2X_1+4X_2=100 respectively , what is the amount of labor and capital which maximize the above production function? A) 8.2 & 12.4 respectively B) 12.4 & 18.8 respectively C) 12.4 & 36.4 respectively D) None of the above 40 / 100 40) Consider production function Q=300√L -4L . where Q denotes output and L denotes the size of work force , what is the value of 〖MP〗_L when L=9? A) 46 B) 60 C) 56 D) 30 41 / 100 41) According to _______________ the SRAS & LRAS curves differ because of temporary misperceptions about prices. A) Sticky-wage Model B) Imperfect-Information Model C) Worker-Misperception Model D) Sticky-Price Model 42 / 100 42) A curve which plots the relationship between equilibrium interest rate and income in money market is A) Money supply curve B) LM curve C) IS curve D) Aggregate demand curve 43 / 100 43) Which one is the link variable between goods market and money market in IS- LM model? A) Interest rate B) Money supply C) Investment D) Government purchase 44 / 100 44) Which of the followings shows surplus trade? A) Exports > imports B) Exports < imports C) Exports = imports D) Savings < investments 45 / 100 45) Which of the following statements is incorrect? A) In open economy, an increase in government expenditure will have no expansionary effect on national income. B) In open economy, the multiplier effect of an increase in exports is identical to that of an increase in government expenditure. C) In open economy, an increase in government expenditure leads to deterioration of current account balance. D) In open economy, an increase in export leads to an improvement in the current account balance. 46 / 100 46) Which of the following is true regarding aggregate demand curve? A) An increase in money supply shifts aggregate demand curve to the right, citrus paribus. B) An increase in government purchases shifts aggregate demand curve to the right, citrus paribus. C) A decrease in taxes shifts the aggregate demand curve to the right, citrus paribus. D) All of the above 47 / 100 47) Which of the following statements is incorrect? A) The IS-LM shows that increase in government purchases raises equilibrium income and interest rate, citrus paribus. B) A change in income in IS-LM model resulting from a change in the price level represents a shift in the aggregate demand curve citrus paribus. C) The IS-LM model shows that increase in money supply raises interest rate, citrus paribus. D) Other things remaining constant, a tax cut raises equilibrium income but not interest rate in IS-LM model. 48 / 100 48) Reasons for using Panel Data doesn’t include A) Panel data can take explicit account of individual-specific heterogeneity (“individual” here means related to the micro unit) B) Panel data is better suited than cross-sectional data for studying the dynamics of change. For example it is well suited to understanding transition behaviour – for example company bankruptcy or merger. C) Panel data is better at detecting and measuring effects that cannot be observed in either cross-section or time-series data. D) None of the above 49 / 100 49) For an equation to be identified A) total number of variables (endogenous and exogenous) excluded from it must be equal to or greater than number of endogenous variables in model less one. B) the total number of variables excluded from it but included in other equations must be at least as great as the number of equations of the system less one. C) in a system of G equations if and only if it is possible to construct at least one non-zero determinant of order (G-1) from the coefficients of the variables excluded from that particular equation but contained in the other equations of the model. D) All of the above 50 / 100 50) Which of the following is incorrect about simultaneous equation model? A) A model is said to constitute a system of simultaneous equations if all of the relationships involved are required for determining the values of at least one of the endogenous variables included in the model. B) The number of equations in such models is greater to the number of jointly dependent or endogenous variables involved in the phenomenon under analysis. C) The variables that are truly non-stochastic or regarded as non-stochastic are called the exogenous variables. D) Lagged dependent variables used as regressors in the model are called predetermined variables. 51 / 100 51) If the trend in a time series is completely predictable and not variable, we call it A) Deterministic trend B) Stochastic trend C) Non stationary trend D) All 52 / 100 52) which of the followings is not among problems of linear probability model: A) A linear relationship between the dependent and independent variables B) Non-normality of the error term C) Heteroskedastic errors D) Potentially nonsensical predictions 53 / 100 53) Which of the following is correct? A) Random Walk without drift is a non-stationary stochastic process. B) Random Walk with drift is a stationary stochastic process. C) If a time series has to be differenced twice (i.e., take the first difference of the first differences) to make it stationary, we call such a time series integrated of order 1. D) A linear combination or sum of stationary and non-stationary time series is stationary. 54 / 100 54) Which of the following statements is incorrect? A) The category for which no dummy variable is assigned is known as the base, benchmark, control, comparison, reference, or omitted category. And all comparisons are made in relation to the benchmark category. B) The logit model uses the logistic cumulative distribution (function), whereas the probit model assumes normal cumulative distribution function (CDF). C) An obvious characteristic of time series data which distinguishes it from cross-sectional data is that a time series data set comes with a temporal ordering. D) A stationary time series data are one whose statistical properties such as mean, variance, autocorrelation, etc. depend upon time. 55 / 100 55) Which of the following statements is correct? A) The coefficient of the dummy variable measures the differences in the two slope terms. B) The assumption made in the dummy variable method is that it is only the intercept that changes for each group. C) For each qualitative regressor the number of dummy variables introduced must be one greater than the categories of that variable. D) Using the ordinary least squares (OLS) technique to estimate a model with a dummy dependent variable is known as creating a logistic/ probit regression model. 56 / 100 56) ________________ analysis is concerned with describing and explaining the relationship between an explained variable and one or more of the explanatory variables. A) Coefficient of determination B) Regression C) Correlation D) P- value 57 / 100 57) Which one is equal to explained variation divided by total variation? A) Sum of squares due to regression B) Coefficient of Determination C) Standard Error of Estimate D) Coefficient of Correlation 58 / 100 58) Consider the equation, y = α+β1×1 + β2X2 + u. null hypothesis, H0: β2 = 0 states that: A) X2 has no effect on the expected value of β2. B) X2 has no effect on the expected value of Y C) β2 has no effect on the expected value of Y. D) Y has no effect on the expected value of X2. 59 / 100 59) Which of the following is among rules of thumb to address the problem of multicollinearity? A) A priori information B) Examination of partial correlations C) data collection method employed D) A & B 60 / 100 60) Which of the followings might not reasons why variances of may be variable? A) error-learning models B) correctly specified model C) C) improvement in data collecting techniques D) presence of outliers 61 / 100 61) Which of the following statements is incorrect? A) Multicollinearity is not a problem if the objective of the analysis is to test the significance of individual partial coefficients. B) The variance of u_i is homoscedastic or heteroscedastic plays no part in determination of unbiasedness, but efficiency property of OLS estimators. C) Given population regression function as Y_i=β_1+β_2 X_i+u_i with coefficient of determination r^2=0.8 of data collected from a sample of 10 students. Then the value of computed F* is 32. D) Given population regression function as Y_i=β_1+β_2 X_i+u_i, the acceptance of null hypothesis H_0=0 implies that there is no relationship between X and Y. 62 / 100 62) Which of the following is incorrect statement regarding classical linear regression model assumptions? A) The conditional mean value of disturbance term is zero. B) No autocorrelation between the disturbance terms. C) Regression model is linear in parameters but it may not be linear in variables. D) The value of independent variable is fixed in a given sample. 63 / 100 63) Which of the following statements is correct? A) Econometrics is exactly identical to each one of Economic Theory, Mathematical Economics and Economic Statistics. B) Economic statistics is mainly interested in the empirical verification of economic theory while Econometrician Forecast/predict economic variables C) Data collected at a given point of time is known as cross sectional data. D) A deliberately simplified analytical framework is called econometric model. 64 / 100 64) All of the following statements are considered correct under absorption approach, except: A) If devaluation raises domestic income relative to domestic absorption, then the current account improves. B) If devaluation raises domestic absorption relative to domestic income, then the current account deteriorates. C) If the economy is at less than full employment, there will be an increase in net exports following devaluation. D) Devaluation has no terms of trade effect. 65 / 100 65) _____an economic term for the negative consequences that can arise from the spike in the value of a nation’s currency A) Government debt B) Dutch disease C) Budget deficit D) Inflation 66 / 100 66) Which one of the following is not an obstacle for international macroeconomic coordination: A) Lack of consensus about the functioning of the international monetary system B) Lack of agreement on the precise policy mix required C) Not knowing how to distribute the gains from successful policy coordination D) reduction of uncertainty and avoidance of excessive deflation 67 / 100 67) From the following one is not categorized under expenditure switching policy: A) Revaluation of exchange rate B) Devaluation of exchange rate C) Trade and exchange rate control D) Fiscal policy targeting recession 68 / 100 68) Which of the following is a disadvantage of a fixed exchange rate system? A) Reduced volatility in currency values B) Increased stability in international trade C) Reduced ability to respond to economic shocks D) Increased ability to control inflation 69 / 100 69) The Marshall-Lerner condition states that a currency depreciation will improve a country’s trade balance if: A) The sum of the price elasticities of demand for exports and imports is greater than one. B) The sum of the price elasticity of demand for exports and imports is less than one. C) The price elasticity of demand for exports is greater than the price elasticity of demand for imports. D) The price elasticity of demand for exports is less than the price elasticity of demand for imports. 70 / 100 70) The J-curve effect refers to the idea that: A) A country’s trade balance will worsen in the short run after currency depreciation and then improve in the long run. B) A country’s trade balance will improve in the short run after currency depreciation and then worsen in the long run. C) A country’s trade balance will improve in both the short run and the long run after currency depreciation. D) A country’s trade balance will worsen in both the short run and the long run after a currency depreciation 71 / 100 71) From the following one does not describe the function of commercial banks in FORX market: A) Carry out sells/buy order from their client B) Intervene in the market to influence exchange rate C) Buy/sell currencies in their account D) They can deal directly with other banks in the market 72 / 100 72) From the following which one is the ultimate goal of monetary policy. A) Economic growth. B) High employment C) Price stability D) All 73 / 100 73) From the following statement which one is wrong? A) All banks have an account at the Central bank in which they hold deposits. B) Reserves consist of deposits at the Central bank plus currency that is physically held by banks. C) Reserves are liabilities for the banks but assets for the Central bank. D) An increase in reserves leads to an increase in the level of deposits. 74 / 100 74) Which of the following is not an asset of central bank? A) Central bank notes outstanding. B) Gold and SDR certificate accounts. C) Securities D) Discount loans. 75 / 100 75) Which of the following is incorrect regarding Keynesian demand for money? A) People demand money to fulfill their current consumption demand of goods and services. B) People demand money as a precaution for future unexpected transaction. C) Keynes agreed with the Cambridge economists that money is also demanded as a store of value. D) Keynes agreed the fact that transaction demand for money is affected by interest rate. 76 / 100 76) Which of the following is incorrect about classical theory of money? A) Money demand is not a function of interest rate. B) Money demand is not a function of velocity of money. C) Money demand is purely a function of nominal income. D) Money demanded for transaction purpose only depends on the volume of transaction. 77 / 100 77) Which of the following is the advantage of financial intermediaries? A) Increase transaction cost. B) Intensify moral hazard. C) Liquidity service. D) None 78 / 100 78) The process of indirect finance using financial intermediaries is known as? A) Fund raising. B) Financial intermediation. C) Common stock. D) Security issuing. 79 / 100 79) Which of the following is incorrect about equity (common stock) and debt holder? A) An equity holder is a residual claimant. B) Equity holders benefit directly from any increases in the corporation’s profitability. C) Debt holders do not share the benefit of company but equity holder do. D) Debt holder will directly benefit from increasing the profit of corporation. 80 / 100 80) Which one is not Activities and responsibilities of Central Banks? A) Manages the country’s gold reserve. B) Setting the official interest rate. C) Collecting tax. D) Manages the country’s foreign exchange. 81 / 100 81) According to the Heckscher-Ohlin model, a country that is relatively abundant in capital will tend to: A) Import capital-intensive goods and export labor-intensive goods. B) Import labor-intensive goods and export capital-intensive goods. C) Import both labor-intensive and capital-intensive goods. D) Export both labor-intensive and capital-intensive goods. 82 / 100 82) Static comparative advantage goods in developing countries A) Are extremely volatile in price B) Managerial and organizational skills to produce them are needed while building industrial economy C) Price of the goods are stable historically D) B&C correct answers 83 / 100 83) The form of economic integration in which the member nations eliminate tariffs on trade among themselves, adopt a common external tariff wall. and allow for the free movement of labor and capital within the union is the A) Common market B) Free-trade area C) Customs union D) Economic union 84 / 100 84) If a good is imported into (large) country H from country F, then the imposition of a tariff in country H A) Raises the price in country H and cannot affect its price in country F. B) Lowers the price of the good in both countries. C) Lowers the price of the good in H and could raise it in F. D) Raises the price of the good in H and lowers it in F. 85 / 100 85) Intra-industry trade can be explained in part by: A) Adam Smith’s principle of absolute advantage B) Perfect competition in product markets C) Diseconomies of large scale production D) Transportation costs between and within nations 86 / 100 86) Which trade theory suggests that a newly produced good, once exported, could ultimately end up being imported as the technology is transferred to lower-cost nations? A) Factor endowment theory B) Product life cycle theory C) Overlapping demand theory D) Comparative advantage theory 87 / 100 87) Which of the following is an example of a regional trade agreement? A) The World Trade Organization B) The North American Free Trade Agreement C) The General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade D) The International Monetary Fund 88 / 100 88) Which of the following is an example of a comparative advantage? A) A country producing all of its own goods and services B) A country specializing in producing goods and services that it can produce at a lower opportunity cost than other countries C) A country producing all goods and services at the same level of efficiency as other countries D) A country producing only high-value luxury goods and services 89 / 100 89) process of seeing what changes in the value of the dep’t variable is consequent on a change in the value of one or more of the variables in project analysis is : A) Financial analysis B) Economic analysis C) sensitivity analysis D) environmental analysis 90 / 100 90) An increase in the net working capital in a project corresponds a cash outflow to be financed. In project analysis costs are easier to identify or value than project benefits. A) The first statement is true B) the second statement is false C) Both statements are false D) both statements are true 91 / 100 91) Suppose you are some type investor and submitted your investment to Ethiopian investment commission, and then a team of investment commissioners started to analyze your proposal. Hence this stage is: A) project Appraisal B) a project implementation C) Project Pre-feasibility studies D) project Feasibility study 92 / 100 92) Which one of the following is a micro level source of a project: A) Sectorial plans and strategies B) Decisions to correct social and regional inequalities. C) identification of unsatisfied demand or needs D) Unusual events such as draughts 93 / 100 93) If a project involves improvement in several non-monetary dimensions, we use which method? A) Cost benefit analysis B) Cost effectiveness analysis C) Weighted Cost effectiveness analysis D) Net present value criterion 94 / 100 94) In economic analysis, we cannot use market price to value the economic worth of projects, because of the following reasons, except? A) Failure of the product market and government intervention B) Failure of the resource market C) The presence of public goods D) Symmetric information 95 / 100 95) Ex-post evaluation involves the following, except? A) collecting data on actual outcomes for participant and nonparticipant groups B) Collecting data on social and economic factors that may have determined the course of the intervention. C) It may involve simulations based on assumptions about how the economy works. D) It involves the treatment effects model 96 / 100 96) Which one of the following statement is true regarding monitoring and evaluation? A) While project evaluation is narrower in scope monitoring is wider. B) While monitoring uses primarily qualitative data evaluation deploys quantitative data. C) Evaluation focus on impact and sustainability, meanwhile monitoring focus on output. D) Both involves in depth analysis of factors in the project. 97 / 100 97) The line joining the different points of consumer’s equilibrium resulting from the change only in the price of the commodity is called A) price consumption B) Demand curve C) income consumption curve D) Engel curve 98 / 100 98) Assume a budget line is drawn for two commodities: X on the x-axis and Y on the y-axis. If the income of the consumer is 100 Birr, the y-intercept is 4, and the slope of the budget line is 2 in absolute value, the price of commodity Y is: A) 25 Birr B) 12.5 Birr C) 50 Birr D) 8 Birr 99 / 100 99) Which one of the following is correct? A) MRSx,y=MUy/Mux B) MRSy,x=MUx/Muy C) MRSy,x=(-∆Y)/∆X D) MRSx,y=(-∆Y)/∆X 100 / 100 100) In a single commodity case; If MUX > Px, how will the consumer react? A) consumer will reduce the consumption of the commodity “X” B) consumer will increase the consumption of the commodity “X” C) The consumer will buy more of good “Y” and less of god” X” D) The consumer will buy less of god” X” and none of “Y” Your score is 0%
Wow I have scored 52